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iSQI CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Exam Practice Test

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Total 365 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

Question 2

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

Question 3

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

Question 4

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

Question 5

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

Question 6

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

Question 7

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 9

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

Question 10

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

Question 11

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

Question 12

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

Question 14

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 15

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Question 17

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

Question # 17

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

Question 18

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

Question 19

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

Question 20

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

Question 22

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

Question 23

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

Question 24

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

Question 26

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

Question 27

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

Question 28

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

Question 29

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

Question 30

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

Question 31

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

Question 32

Given the following requirement:

Question # 32

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

Question 33

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

Question 34

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

Question 36

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

Question 37

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

Question 38

Which of the following BEST describes a methodical approach to the Error Guessing test technique?

Options:

A.

A tester dynamically designs and executes tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

B.

An experienced tester makes a list of potential defects and failures, and designs and runs tests to generate these failures should the defects be present in the code.

C.

A tester designs, implements and executes tests to cover test conditions found in checklists that are based on what is important for the user.

D.

An inexperienced tester is asked to attempt to guess errors that may have been missed by experienced testers during formal test design.

Question 39

A bank offers a savings account with various interest rates based on the current balance in the account. The balance ranges and respective interest rates are:

Question # 39

Using two-point boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test Inputs provides the relatively highest level of boundary coverage?

Options:

A.

$5.00, S100.00. S499.99. $1,000,00. $1,000.01

B.

$100.00. S500.00. $1,000.00. $1,000.01

C.

$100.00, $100.01, $100.02, $500.00. $999 99

D.

$5,00, $100.00, $500.00, $1,000.01

Question 40

At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers write the steps of the test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test implementation and execution

B.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C.

Test closure activities

D.

Test planning and control

Question 41

A holiday club restricts those booking the holiday, to people between the ages of 18 and 30 inclusive.

Using three-point boundary values, what ages would be required to test the lower and upper boundary?

Options:

A.

17, 18, 19, 29, 30, 31.

B.

17, 18, 19, 30, 31, 32.

C.

18, 19, 20, 28, 29, 30.

D.

16, 17, 18, 30, 31, 32.

Question 42

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Question 43

Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

Options:

A.

Component test

B.

Feature test

C.

Functional test

D.

Subsystem test

Question 44

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Question 45

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?

Options:

A.

Re-prioritize tests because of time pressure

B.

Change the test schedule due to viability of a test environment

C.

Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan

D.

Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build

Question 47

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

B.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

C.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

D.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

Question 48

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.

B.

Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.

C.

Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing

D.

Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.

Question 49

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 50

Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures

B.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

C.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects

D.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

Question 51

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

A test team with high level of independence, may suffer from lower familiarity with the product

B.

Development team may find many defects since they are familiar with the code

C.

Tests designed by a person from different group in the organization is the highest independence level

D.

Tests designed by a person in the development team other than the person who wrote the code is the lowest level of independence

Question 52

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 53

Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

Options:

A.

The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.

B.

The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.

C.

The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.

D.

In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.

Question 54

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Question 55

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B.

100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.

C.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.

D.

It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

Question 56

Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)?

Options:

A.

Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

B.

Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

C.

Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing

D.

Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities

Question 57

What is integration testing?

Options:

A.

Looking for faults in larger components or subsystems

B.

Another term for testing system integrity

C.

Specifying which components to integrate in which order

D.

Testing that the interfaces work correctly

Question 58

Which of the following is a direct benefit of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products'?

Options:

A.

The ability to give meaningful names to documents

B.

The ability to analyse the impact of changes

C.

The ability to identify the author of each document

D.

The ability to determine the best test design approach

Question 59

Which of the following is by definition a reactive test approach?

Options:

A.

Risk-based testing

B.

Automation of regression tests

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Requirements-based testing

Question 60

Which of the following tasks Is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

C.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

D.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

Question 61

An online form has a "Title" input field The valid values for this field are: Mr, Ms. Mrs. Which of the following is a correct list of the equivalence classes of the input values for this field?

Options:

A.

Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; any other input

B.

Mr: Ms; Mrs.: no input; any other input

C.

Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; no input, any other input

D.

Mr; Mrs.; Ms; any other input

Question 62

Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage.

Question # 62

Options:

A.

Statement coverage: 4, Decision coverage: 5

B.

Statement coverage. 3. Decision coverage 4

C.

Statement coverage 4. Decision coverage 4

D.

Statement coverage: 4. Decision coverage: 3

Question 63

Which of the following BEST describes error guessing?

Options:

A.

Error guessing involves designing tests based on experience, defect data, or common knowledge about why software fails

B.

Error guessing involves building test cases based on the various experiences of developers, architects, users, and other stakeholders on project teams

C.

Error guessing is a suitable test technique and can be used effectively in place of more formal techniques

D.

Error guessing is a valid and useful white-box lest technique due to Its high degree ol statement coverage

Question 64

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing

B.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects

C.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of defects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

Question 65

How are statement testing and decision testing techniques similar?

Options:

A.

Both are specification-based testing techniques

B.

Both are experience-based testing techniques

C.

Both are structure-based testing techniques

D.

Both are black box test design techniques

Question 66

Which of the following statements gives the BEST example of a trigger for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of a customer service application

B.

Business approval to fund a project to develop an e-commerce web application

C.

Completion of the requirements specifications for an application

D.

Completion of the designs for an application

Question 67

Which of the following are correct tasks during "Test analysis and design"?

I. Designing and prioritizing test cases

II Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

III. Reviewing the test basis

IV Creating test data and preparing test harnesses

V. Writing automated test scripts

Options:

A.

II, III, IV, V

B.

l, III IV

C.

I, II. Ill

D.

I, ll

Question 68

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

Options:

A.

The expected result for the list friends response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found it quite difficult to follow the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

SQL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority

Question 69

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

unit test framework tool evelopers who are familiar with the system's structure.

B.

configuration management tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 70

What of the following statements regarding walkthrough are NOT true?

Options:

A.

A walkthrough is lead by a moderator and requires pre-meeting preparation and post meeting follow up

B.

A walkthrough may take the form of scenarios, dry runs and peer group review

C.

The purpose of a walkthrough is to establish common understanding of a document and to find possible defects in it

D.

Pre-meeting preparation, documentation and distribution of results are optional for a walkthrough

Question 71

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a. Pair review

b. Walkthrough

c. Technical review

d. Inspection

1. Formal

2. Inlornial

3. Purpose includes gaining consensus

4. Purposes include improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review/ characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

B.

a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

Question 72

A "functional test" is...

Options:

A.

... a test focused on the efficiency of the system

B.

... a dynamic test for which the tests are based on the specification of the test object.

C.

... a static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object

D.

... a test for which the test cases and test data are based on the structure of the test object

Question 73

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Mistake

C.

Fault

D.

Error

Question 74

Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing. State transition testing, Control flow testing

B.

Decision table testing. Use case testing, Control flow testing

C.

Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing

D.

Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing

Question 75

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 76

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

Question 77

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 78

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

Question 79

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Question 80

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

Question 81

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 81

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

Question 82

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Question 83

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

Question # 84

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

Options:

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

Question 85

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 86

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 87

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 88

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

Question 89

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

Question 90

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 91

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 91

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Question 92

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

Question 93

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Question 94

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Options:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

Question 95

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

Question 96

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Question 97

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Question 98

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 99

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Options:

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

Question 100

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

Question 101

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

Question 102

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

Question 103

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Question 104

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Question 105

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

Question 106

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 107

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Question 108

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

Question 109

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Total 365 questions