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Symantec 250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Exam Practice Test

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Total 150 questions

Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?

Options:

A.

Specific "device type" rules

B.

Specific "device model" rules

C.

General "catch all" rules

D.

General "brand defined" rules

Question 2

Files are blocked by hash in the deny list policy. Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?

Options:

A.

SHA2

B.

SHA256

C.

SHA256 "salted"

D.

MD5 "Salted"

Question 3

How are Insight results stored?

Options:

A.

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

B.

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

C.

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

D.

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

Question 4

If an administrator enables the setting to manage policies from the cloud, what steps must be taken to reverse this process?

Options:

A.

Navigate to ICDm > Enrollment and disable the setting

B.

Unenroll the SEPM > Disable the setting > Re-enroll the SEPM

C.

Revoke policies from ICDm

D.

Revoke policies from SEPM

Question 5

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

Options:

A.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

Question 6

Which SES feature helps administrators apply policies based on specific endpoint profiles?

Options:

A.

Policy Bundles

B.

Device Profiles

C.

Policy Groups

D.

Device Groups

Question 7

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

Question 8

An organization would like to use a content distribution method that centrally controls content types and versions. Almost all of their endpoints are running Windows.

What type of content distribution method should be used?

Options:

A.

Management Server

B.

Group Update Provider

C.

Internal LiveUpdate Server

D.

External LiveUpdate Server

Question 9

Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Entire Network

B.

IP range within the network

C.

Subnet Range

D.

IP range within the subnet

E.

Entire Subnet

Question 10

What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

Options:

A.

Entity View

B.

Process View

C.

Full Dump

D.

Endpoint Dump

Question 11

What is the maximum number of SEPMs a single Management Platform is able to connect to?

Options:

A.

50

B.

10

C.

5,000

D.

500

Question 12

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

Question 13

What does the MITRE ATT&CK Matrix consist of?

Options:

A.

Problems and Solutions

B.

Attackers and Techniques

C.

Tactics and Techniques

D.

Entities and Tactics

Question 14

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

Question 15

What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Incident Manager

B.

Policies

C.

Syslog

D.

Action Manager

E.

Endpoint Search

Question 16

Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?

Options:

A.

Delete

B.

Hide

C.

Encrypt

D.

Deny List

Question 17

The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

Options:

A.

10

B.

20

C.

30

D.

60

Question 18

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

Question 19

Which type of event does operation:1indicate in a SEDR database search?

Options:

A.

File Deleted.

B.

File Closed.

C.

File Open.

D.

File Created.

Question 20

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Options:

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

Question 21

A file has been identified as malicious.

Which feature of SEDR allows an administrator to manually block a specific file hash?

Options:

A.

Playbooks

B.

Quarantine

C.

Allow List

D.

Block List

Question 22

How does IPS check custom signatures?

Options:

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

Question 23

Which two (2) security controls are utilized by an administrator to mitigate threats associated with the Discovery phase? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

IPS

C.

Antimalware

D.

Blacklist

E.

E.Device Control

Question 24

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Options:

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

Question 25

Which type of security threat continues to threaten endpoint security after a system reboot?

Options:

A.

file-less

B.

memory attack

C.

script

D.

Rootkit

Question 26

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

Question 27

What should an administrator know regarding the differences between a Domain and a Tenant in ICDm?

Options:

A.

A tenant can contain multiple domains

B.

Each customer can have one domain and many tenants

C.

A domain can contain multiple tenants

D.

Each customer can have one tenant and no domains

Question 28

An administrator is troubleshooting a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) replication.

Which component log should the administrator check to determine whether the communication between the two sites is working correctly?

Options:

A.

Apache Web Server

B.

Tomcat

C.

SQL Server

D.

Group Update Provider (GUP)

Question 29

What information is required to calculate storage requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

Question 30

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

Question 31

Why is Active Directory a part of nearly every targeted attack?

Options:

A.

AD administrationis managed by weak legacy APIs.

B.

AD is, by design, an easily accessed flat file name space directory database

C.

AD exposes all of its identities, applications, and resources to every endpoint in the network

D.

AD user attribution includes hidden elevated admin privileges

Question 32

What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?

Options:

A.

SEDR Cloud Console

B.

Synapse

C.

SEP Endpoints

D.

SEPM

Question 33

What does an Endpoint Activity Recorder (EAR) full dump consist of?

Options:

A.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint relating to a single file

B.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint relating to a single process

C.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint

D.

All of the recorded events that are in the SEDR database

Question 34

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.

Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?

Options:

A.

Change the LiveUpdate schedule

B.

Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule

C.

Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off

D.

Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive

Question 35

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

Options:

A.

The Incident Summary Widget

B.

The Process Lineage Widget

C.

The Events Widget

D.

The Incident Graph Widget

Question 36

Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

System

C.

Diagnostic

D.

Application Activity

Question 37

Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Console Domain Administrator

B.

Server Administrator

C.

Restricted Administrator

D.

Limited Administrator

Question 38

Which client log shows that a client is downloading content from its designated source?

Options:

A.

Risk Log

B.

System Log

C.

SesmLu.log

D.

Log.LiveUpdate

Question 39

What does a medium-priority incident indicate?

Options:

A.

The incident may have an impact on the business

B.

The incident can result in a business outage

C.

The incident does not affect critical business operation

D.

The incident can safely be ignored

Question 40

What happens when an administrator adds a file to the deny list?

Options:

A.

The file is assigned to a chosen Deny List policy

B.

The file is assigned to the Deny List task list

C.

The file is automatically quarantined

D.

The file is assigned to the default Deny List policy

Question 41

What is a feature of Cynic?

Options:

A.

Local Sandboxing

B.

Forwarding event data to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

C.

Cloud Sandboxing

D.

Customizable OS Images

Question 42

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

Question 43

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

Question 44

What is the function of Symantec Insight?

Options:

A.

Provides reputation ratings for structured data

B.

Enhances the capability of Group Update Providers (GUP)

C.

Increases the efficiency and effectiveness of LiveUpdate

D.

Provides reputation ratings for binary executables

Question 45

When are events generated within SEDR?

Options:

A.

When an incident is selected

B.

When an activityoccurs

C.

When any event is opened

D.

When entities are viewed

Page: 1 / 15
Total 150 questions