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Splunk SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Exam Practice Test

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Total 99 questions

Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Questions and Answers

Question 1

The following list contains examples of Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs):

1. Exploiting a remote service

2. Lateral movement

3. Use EternalBlue to exploit a remote SMB server

In which order are they listed below?

Options:

A.

Tactic, Technique, Procedure

B.

Procedure, Technique, Tactic

C.

Technique, Tactic, Procedure

D.

Tactic, Procedure, Technique

Question 2

An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of implementing the new process or solution that was selected?

Options:

A.

Security Architect

B.

SOC Manager

C.

Security Engineer

D.

Security Analyst

Question 3

There are many resources for assisting with SPL and configuration questions. Which of the following resources feature community-sourced answers?

Options:

A.

Splunk Answers

B.

Splunk Lantern

C.

Splunk Guidebook

D.

Splunk Documentation

Question 4

What is the main difference between hypothesis-driven and data-driven Threat Hunting?

Options:

A.

Data-driven hunts always require more data to search through than hypothesis-driven hunts.

B.

Data-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, hypothesis-driven hunting begins with a potential activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

C.

Hypothesis-driven hunts are typically executed on newly ingested data sources, while data-driven hunts are not.

D.

Hypothesis-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, data-driven hunting begins with an activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

Question 5

Which of the following is the primary benefit of using the CIM in Splunk?

Options:

A.

It allows for easier correlation of data from different sources.

B.

It improves the performance of search queries on raw data.

C.

It enables the use of advanced machine learning algorithms.

D.

It automatically detects and blocks cyber threats.

Question 6

Which of the following roles is commonly responsible for selecting and designing the infrastructure and tools that a security analyst utilizes to effectively complete their job duties?

Options:

A.

Threat Intelligence Analyst

B.

SOC Manager

C.

Security Engineer

D.

Security Architect

Question 7

A Risk Rule generates events on Suspicious Cloud Share Activity and regularly contributes to confirmed incidents from Risk Notables. An analyst realizes the raw logs these events are generated from contain information which helps them determine what might be malicious.

What should they ask their engineer for to make their analysis easier?

Options:

A.

Create a field extraction for this information.

B.

Add this information to the risk message.

C.

Create another detection for this information.

D.

Allowlist more events based on this information.

Question 8

Which of the Enterprise Security frameworks provides additional automatic context and correlation to fields that exist within raw data?

Options:

A.

Adaptive Response

B.

Threat Intelligence

C.

Risk

D.

Asset and Identity

Question 9

Splunk SOAR uses what feature to automate security workflows so that analysts can spend more time performing analysis and investigation?

Options:

A.

Workbooks

B.

Analytic Stories

C.

Adaptive Actions

D.

Playbooks

Question 10

While testing the dynamic removal of credit card numbers, an analyst lands on using therexcommand. What mode needs to be set to in order to replace the defined values with X?

| makeresults

| eval ccnumber="511388720478619733"

| rex field=ccnumber mode=???"s/(\d{4}-){3)/XXXX-XXXX-XXXX-/g"

Please assume that the aboverexcommand is correctly written.

Options:

A.

sed

B.

replace

C.

mask

D.

substitute

Question 11

While investigating findings in Enterprise Security, an analyst has identified a compromised device. Without leaving ES, what action could they take to run a sequence of containment activities on the compromised device that also updates the original finding?

Options:

A.

Run an event-level workflow action that initiates a SOAR playbook.

B.

Run a field-level workflow action that initiates a SOAR playbook.

C.

Run an adaptive response action that initiates a SOAR playbook.

D.

Run an alert action that initiates a SOAR playbook.

Question 12

When searching in Splunk, which of the following SPL commands can be used to run a subsearch across every field in a wildcard field list?

Options:

A.

foreach

B.

rex

C.

makeresults

D.

transaction

Question 13

An analyst learns that several types of data are being ingested into Splunk and Enterprise Security, and wants to use the metadata SPL command to list them in a search. Which of the following arguments should she use?

Options:

A.

metadata type=cdn

B.

metadata type=sourcetypes

C.

metadata type=assets

D.

metadata type=hosts

Question 14

Which of the following SPL searches is likely to return results the fastest?

Options:

A.

index-network src_port=2938 protocol=top | stats count by src_ip | search src_ip=1.2.3.4

B.

src_ip=1.2.3.4 src_port=2938 protocol=top | stats count

C.

src_port=2938 AND protocol=top | stats count by src_ip | search src_ip=1.2.3.4

D.

index-network sourcetype=netflow src_ip=1.2.3.4 src_port=2938 protocol=top | stats count

Question 15

A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:

As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.

Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.

Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

Options:

A.

The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.

B.

The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.

C.

The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.

D.

The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

Question 16

An organization is using Risk-Based Alerting (RBA). During the past few days, a user account generated multiple risk observations. Splunk refers to this account as what type of entity?

Options:

A.

Risk Factor

B.

Risk Index

C.

Risk Analysis

D.

Risk Object

Question 17

Splunk Enterprise Security has numerous frameworks to create correlations, integrate threat intelligence, and provide a workflow for investigations. Which framework raises the threat profile of individuals or assets to allow identification of people or devices that perform an unusual amount of suspicious activities?

Options:

A.

Threat Intelligence Framework

B.

Risk Framework

C.

Notable Event Framework

D.

Asset and Identity Framework

Question 18

What is the first phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Protect

B.

Define and Predict

C.

Assess and Evaluate

D.

Respond and Recover

Question 19

An analyst is investigating a network alert for suspected lateral movement from one Windows host to another Windows host. According to Splunk CIM documentation, the IP address of the host from which the attacker is moving would be in which field?

Options:

A.

host

B.

dest

C.

src_nt_host

D.

src_ip

Question 20

Which Enterprise Security framework provides a mechanism for running preconfigured actions within the Splunk platform or integrating with external applications?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Notable Event

C.

Threat Intelligence

D.

Adaptive Response

Question 21

A Risk Notable Event has been triggered in Splunk Enterprise Security, an analyst investigates the alert, and determines it is a false positive. What metric would be used to define the time between alert creation and close of the event?

Options:

A.

MTTR (Mean Time to Respond)

B.

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

C.

MTTA (Mean Time to Acknowledge)

D.

MTTD (Mean Time to Detect)

Question 22

An analyst is attempting to investigate a Notable Event within Enterprise Security. Through the course of their investigation they determined that the logs and artifacts needed to investigate the alert are not available.

What event disposition should the analyst assign to the Notable Event?

Options:

A.

Benign Positive, since there was no evidence that the event actually occurred.

B.

False Negative, since there are no logs to prove the activity actually occurred.

C.

True Positive, since there are no logs to prove that the event did not occur.

D.

Other, since a security engineer needs to ingest the required logs.

Question 23

Which Splunk Enterprise Security framework provides a way to identify incidents from events and then manage the ownership, triage process, and state of those incidents?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Investigation Management

C.

Notable Event

D.

Adaptive Response

Question 24

As an analyst, tracking unique users is a common occurrence. The Security Operations Center (SOC) manager requested a search with results in a table format to track the cumulative downloads by distinct IP address. Which example calculates the running total of distinct users over time?

Options:

A.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time | streamstats dc(ipa) as "Cumulative total"

B.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time

C.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | table clientip _time user

D.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by user | table _time ipa

Question 25

Which dashboard in Enterprise Security would an analyst use to generate a report on users who are currently on a watchlist?

Options:

A.

Access Tracker

B.

Identity Tracker

C.

Access Center

D.

Identity Center

Question 26

Outlier detection is an analysis method that groups together data points into high density clusters. Data points that fall outside of these high density clusters are considered to be what?

Options:

A.

Inconsistencies

B.

Baselined

C.

Anomalies

D.

Non-conformatives

Question 27

An adversary uses "LoudWiner" to hijack resources for crypto mining. What does this represent in a TTP framework?

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Tactic

C.

Problem

D.

Technique

Question 28

An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of designing the new process and selecting the required tools to implement it?

Options:

A.

SOC Manager

B.

Security Engineer

C.

Security Architect

D.

Security Analyst

Question 29

Which of the following is a correct Splunk search that will return results in the most performant way?

Options:

A.

index=foo host=i-478619733 | stats range(_time) as duration by src_ip | bin duration span=5min | stats count by duration, host

B.

| stats range(_time) as duration by src_ip | index=foo host=i-478619733 | bin duration span=5min | stats count by duration, host

C.

index=foo host=i-478619733 | transaction src_ip |stats count by host

D.

index=foo | transaction src_ip |stats count by host | search host=i-478619733

Page: 1 / 10
Total 99 questions