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PMI PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 Exam Practice Test

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Total 919 questions

Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 2

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question 3

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question 4

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Question 5

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question 6

What are the five Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

B.

Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

C.

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending

D.

Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure

Question 7

The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project finance management

B.

Project cost estimation

C.

Project life cycle definition

D.

Project plan development

Question 8

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

Question 9

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question 10

Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:

Options:

A.

Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

B.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

C.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy.

D.

Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment, and organizational process assets.

Question 11

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

Question 12

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Question 13

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question 14

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Question 15

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 16

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

Question 17

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Question 18

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question 19

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Question 20

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Question # 20

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 21

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Change control process

D.

Team performance assessment

Question 22

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Question 23

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Question 24

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question 25

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

Options:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Question 26

For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

B.

Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.

C.

Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.

D.

Determining which particular processes are appropriate.

Question 27

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 28

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Question 29

The chart below is an example of a:

Question # 29

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Question 30

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Question 31

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Question 32

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Question 33

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

Question 34

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 35

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 36

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

Question 37

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 38

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question 39

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question 40

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200

Options:

A.

0.67

B.

1.5

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 41

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

Options:

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Question 42

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Question 43

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question 44

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Question 45

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Question 46

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 47

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Question 48

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 49

As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

Question 50

Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for Opportunities

C.

Decision Tree Analysis

D.

Risk Data Quality Assessment

Question 51

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question 52

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question 53

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Question 54

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

Question 55

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Question 56

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 57

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 58

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

Question 59

The following is a network diagram for a project.

Question # 59

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question 60

Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

B.

Activity list and Arrow Diagram

C.

Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets

D.

Project Management Plan and Resource Availability

Question 61

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

Question 62

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question 63

The following is a network diagram for a project.

Question # 63

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Question 64

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Options:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Question 65

The following is a network diagram for a project.

Question # 65

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

Question 66

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Question 67

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

Options:

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

Question 68

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Question 69

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 70

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

Question 71

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Question 72

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question 73

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Question 74

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Question 75

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question 76

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

Options:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question 77

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Question 78

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Question 79

Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships?

Options:

A.

Force field diagrams

B.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

C.

Affinity diagrams

D.

Nominal group techniques

Question 80

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question 81

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 82

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 83

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Question 84

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 85

Which of the following is a schematic display of the project’s schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Project schedule network diagram

C.

Project milestone list

D.

Activity list

Question 86

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$200

Question 87

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Question 88

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Question 89

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Question 90

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Question 91

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 92

Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?

Options:

A.

Change control board

B.

Project manager

C.

Project management office

D.

Project sponsor

Question 93

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Options:

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Question 94

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

Question 95

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Question 96

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question 97

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 98

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 99

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Question 100

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Monitor and control project work

D.

Risk response planning

Question 101

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Question 102

Activities on the critical path have which type of float?

Options:

A.

Zero free float

B.

Zero or negative float

C.

Negative and positive float

D.

Zero or positive float

Question 103

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Question 104

Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?

Options:

A.

Dictatorship

B.

Majority

C.

Plurality

D.

Unanimity

Question 105

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Control

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 106

Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?

Options:

A.

Risk urgency assessment

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Risk register

D.

Schedule management plan

Question 107

What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

Options:

A.

Work Packages

B.

Activities

C.

Schedules

D.

Tasks

Question 108

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 109

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure update

C.

Project network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 110

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

Question 111

Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Risk response planning

B.

Manage stakeholders

C.

Scope definition

D.

Performance reporting

Question 112

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 113

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Question 114

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 115

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question 116

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question 117

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question 118

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question 119

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 120

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Question 121

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question 122

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Question 123

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question 124

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Question 125

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Question 126

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 127

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 128

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 129

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Question 130

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Question 131

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 132

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 133

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question 134

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Question 135

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 136

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question 137

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Total 919 questions