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PMI CA0-001 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 53
Total 525 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following are input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

All of the above

Question 2

You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory

Options:

A.

Hierarchy of needs

B.

Expectancy theory

C.

Achievement theory

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 3

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

WBS

Question 5

Acceptance of the product should be ________.

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Consistent

C.

Personal

D.

Verbal

Question 6

You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?

Options:

A.

Pi'ojectized

B.

Strong Matrix

C.

Weak Matrix

D.

Functional

Question 7

Project scope is _____________.

Options:

A.

The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B.

The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

C.

Part °ftne project charter

D.

Part of sow

Question 8

The project baseline is _______.

Options:

A.

Original plans plus the approved changes

B.

Important in the project initiation phase

C.

Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

Original plans and the approved major changes

Question 9

Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals

B.

Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals

C.

Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 10

__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Progressive elaboration

C.

Milestone detail planning

D.

Expert judgment

Question 11

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

Options:

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

Question 12

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

Question 13

You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Balanced matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Strong Matrix

Question 14

PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.

Options:

A.

Buyer or seller

B.

Vendor or seller

C.

Purchasing

D.

Sellino-

Question 15

What are the inputs for Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Product description and Strategic plan

B.

Selection criteria

C.

Historical information

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 16

In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

During the initiation stage

B.

During the planning stage

C.

After approval of budget

D.

After the project is proven feasible

Question 17

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

Options:

A.

Rough order of magnitude

B.

Budget estimate

C.

WBS estimate

D.

Definitive estimate

Question 18

Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

QA manager

D.

Validation engineer

Question 19

You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 20

_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

sow

C.

WBS

D.

Strategic planning

Question 21

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Quality audits

C.

Project audits

D.

Risk audits

Question 22

A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.

Options:

A.

Project archives

B.

Index

C.

sow

D.

Project History

Question 23

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

Options:

A.

Alternative identification

B.

"'s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

Question 24

The work breakdown structure is ________.

Options:

A.

Used to break down the project into manageable pieces

B.

Set and does not change throughout the project

C.

Needed as part of the project charter

D.

[Needed as part of the project scope statement

Question 25

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

Question 26

Project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Team members like project manager.

Question 27

The resource calendars document is an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Develop Project Team

Question 28

Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?

Options:

A.

Project and Product

B.

Staffing and Budget

C.

Stakeholder and Customer

D.

Business and Technical

Question 29

Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Prototypes

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 30

Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.

Resource B's role is that of a:

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Work breakdown manager

D.

Program manager

Question 31

What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Question 32

Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Policy

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Quality Planning

Question 33

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

Options:

A.

Analogous Estimating

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Optimistic Estimates

D.

Reserve Analysis

Question 34

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:

Options:

A.

Always be applied uniformly

B.

Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C.

Be selected as appropriate by the project team

D.

Be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Question 35

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question 36

What information does the stakeholder register contain?

Options:

A.

Communication model

B.

Identification information

C.

Communication method

D.

Identification plan

Question 37

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

Options:

A.

Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B.

Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.

C.

Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.

D.

Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.

Question 38

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure update

C.

Project network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 39

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 40

Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development?

Options:

A.

Storming

B.

Forming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question 41

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Question 42

Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?

Options:

A.

Expected monetary value analysis

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expert judgment

Question 43

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource Leveling

C.

Resource Planning

D.

Resource Conflict Management

Question 44

Which of the following is the definition of a project?

Options:

A.

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product

B.

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

C.

Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

D.

Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

Question 45

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 46

The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk.

This new risk is which of the following types of risk?

Options:

A.

Secondary

B.

Primary

C.

Residual

D.

Tertiary

Question 47

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Parametric measuring

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Earned value

Question 48

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

Question 49

What is an output of Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Work performance measurements

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Work performance information

Question 50

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

Options:

A.

To identify quality requirements of the project

B.

To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C.

To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D.

To ensure quality standards are used

Question 51

Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

Options:

A.

Collaborating

B.

Issue log

C.

Leadership

D.

Motivation

Question 52

Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Monitor and Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 53

A change requests can occur due to:

Options:

A.

An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

C.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

D.

all of the above

Question 54

When the version control numbers should change?

Options:

A.

Any change occurs

B.

Major changes are made

C.

Any change related to scope only

D.

Only if minor changes are made

Question 55

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

6.3

D.

6.1

Question 56

In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Dedicated project team

Question 57

A project plan is:

Options:

A.

A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.

B.

A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

C.

A narrative description of products or services to be supplie

D.

A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

Question 58

Project scope is:

Options:

A.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.

B.

The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.

C.

A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.

D.

a and b

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Milestone chart

C.

fishbone diagram

D.

network diagram

Question 60

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

Options:

A.

30.0

B.

22.5

C.

25.0

D.

27.5

Question 61

Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as ________.

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Measurement

Question 62

Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a fourth country. What tool would optimize communication?

Options:

A.

Extranet-based electronic document repository

B.

Manual filing system

C.

War loom

D.

Verbal

Question 63

Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?

Options:

A.

Contract negotiation

B.

Weighting system

C.

Payment system

D.

Screening system

Question 64

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.

Options:

A.

Likely events

B.

Complex activities

C.

Complex schedules

D.

Uncertain occurrences

Question 65

Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Question 66

Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

Options:

A.

Beginning

B.

Closing

C.

Controlling

D.

Executing

Question 67

You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

C.

Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business

D.

None of the above

Question 68

Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Acceptances

C.

Mitigation

D.

Contingency

Question 69

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

Question 70

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

Question 71

You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

Options:

A.

$600

B.

$1200

C.

$3000

D.

$100

Question 72

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

Question 73

Which of the following best describes project scope?

Options:

A.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

B.

The description of the project deliverables

C.

The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks

D.

The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project

Question 74

A Change Control Board should be _______?

Options:

A.

flexible

B.

Include the project manager

C.

appropriate authority

D.

al1 of the above

Question 75

Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?

Options:

A.

-50%

B.

50%

C.

40%

D.

20%

Question 76

Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

Options:

A.

Contract change control system

B.

Contract negotiation

C.

Payment system

D.

Performance rating

Question 77

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 78

_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F'xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

None

Page: 1 / 53
Total 525 questions