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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 212 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

How is the level of assurance determined in relation to objectivity and competence?

Options:

A.

The level of assurance is based on the financial performance of the organization being evaluated.

B.

The level of assurance is a function of the assurance objectivity and assurance competence of the assurance provider.

C.

The level of assurance is determined by the number of years of experience of the assurance provider.

D.

The level of assurance is established by the governing authority based on regulatory requirements.

Question 2

What should be done with information and findings obtained from all pathways in the context of inquiry?

Options:

A.

Discarding information that is not directly related to compliance

B.

Focusing solely on findings related to unfavorable events

C.

Sharing all findings with external stakeholders and the public

D.

Analysis of information and findings to identify, prioritize, and route findings to management and stakeholders

Question 3

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

Question 4

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

Question 5

Why is it important to provide a helpline for the workforce and other stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the education program

C.

To develop new content for the education program based on questions asked

D.

To allow them to seek guidance about future conduct, ask general questions, and have the option for anonymity

Question 6

How can organizations encourage the occurrence of positive events while preventing negative ones?

Options:

A.

Through implementing proactive actions and controls

B.

Through employee training and follow-up

C.

Through using financial actions and controls

D.

Through relying on responsive actions and controls

Question 7

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

Question 8

What is the role of a values statement in an organization?

Options:

A.

A values statement reflects the shared beliefs and expectations of the organization's leadership, employees, and stakeholders and serves as a guide for establishing a positive and productive organizational culture.

B.

A values statement is a legal document that outlines the financial obligations and liabilities of the organization that contribute to its value.

C.

A values statement is a formal agreement between the organization and its suppliers to ensure the timely delivery of goods and services that are essential to building the organization’s value.

D.

A values statement is a marketing tool used to attract new customers and investors to the organization.

Question 9

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

Question 10

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

Question 11

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

Question 12

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

Question 13

How can inconsistent incentives impact the perception of employees and business partners?

Options:

A.

They can reduce the risk of legal disputes

B.

They can lead to perceptions of favoritism and mistrust

C.

They can increase employee motivation and productivity

D.

They can improve the company’s public image

Question 14

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and setdirection?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

Question 15

What is the primary goal of defining an education plan?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the current skill level of the workforce.

B.

To develop a plan that is tailored to the specific needs of each audience.

C.

To create a helpline for anonymous reporting and asking questions.

D.

To implement Bloom’s Taxonomy in the education program.

Question 16

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

Question 17

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

Question 18

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

Question 19

Which organization and its membership created the concepts of Principled Performance and GRC?

Options:

A.

IAPP (International Association of Privacy Professionals)

B.

AICPA (American Institute of Certified Public Accountants)

C.

ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association)

D.

IFAC (International Federation of Accountants)

E.

IMA (Institute of Management Accountants)

F.

SCCE (Society of Corporate Compliance and Ethics)

G.

ACFE (Association of Certified Fraud Examiners)

Question 20

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

Question 21

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

Question 22

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

Question 23

What is the term used to describe an event that may have a negative effect on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Hazard

C.

Obstacle (Threat)

D.

Challenge

Question 24

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 25

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

Question 26

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be"Lean"?

Options:

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

Question 27

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

Question 28

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

Options:

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

Question 29

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

Question 30

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

Options:

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

Question 31

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 32

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

Question 33

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

Question 34

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

Question 35

What is the role of the mission statement in guiding decision-making and priority-setting within an organization?

Options:

A.

It outlines the organization’s budget and financial goals which must be considered in every type of decision

B.

It describes the organization’s product development plans that must be considered when making decisions and setting priorities

C.

It serves as a clear and consistent statement of the organization’s overall purpose and direction, guiding decision-making and priority-setting

D.

It defines the roles and responsibilities of each department

Question 36

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

Question 37

In the context of event notifications, how can technology-based notifications benefit an organization?

Options:

A.

These notifications are always more reliable than traditional paper-based methods

B.

These notifications often (though not always) alert the organization sooner than other methods, especially when human methods fail or are delayed

C.

Use of this type of notification is only beneficial for large organizations with complex structures

D.

These notifications eliminate the need for any human involvement in the assignment of follow-up tasks

Question 38

In the context of GRC, what is the significance of setting objectives that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timebound (SMART)?

Options:

A.

SMART objectives can be more easily communicated to stakeholders to gain their confidence

B.

SMART objectives allow the organization to avoid accountability and responsibility for failing to achieve objectives

C.

SMART objectives provide clarity, focus, and direction and help ensure that objectives are effectively aligned with the organization’s goals and priorities

D.

SMART objectives are only relevant for financial objectives and have no impact on non-financial objectives

Question 39

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

Question 40

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

Options:

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

Question 41

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

Question 42

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

Question 43

Which aspect of culture includes workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement?

Options:

A.

Compliance and ethics culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Workforce culture

D.

Governance culture

Question 44

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

Question 45

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

Question 46

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

Question 47

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

Question 48

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

Question 49

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

Question 50

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

Question 51

What is the purpose of after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

They are used to provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

B.

They are used to ensure the protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters

C.

They uncover root causes of events and help improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

They are used to escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external

Question 52

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

Options:

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

Question 53

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

Question 54

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

Question 55

What is the end result of the alignment process in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

The end result of alignment is a detailed budget and financial forecast

B.

The end result of alignment is a comprehensive risk assessment report

C.

The end result of alignment is an integrated plan of action

D.

The end result of alignment is a detailed organizational chart with lines of reporting

Question 56

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

Question 57

What are the key measurement criteria for the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Quality, Safety, Compliance, and Sustainability.

B.

Effective, Efficient, Agile, and Resilient.

C.

Leadership, Collaboration, Innovation, and Diversity.

D.

Revenue, Profit, Market Share, and Growth.

Question 58

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves bringing stability against volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous realities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Versatile

C.

Stable

D.

Accountable

Question 59

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

Options:

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

Question 60

In the IACM, what are the two types of Proactive Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

Reactive Actions & Controls and Passive Actions & Controls

B.

Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls and Promote/Enable Actions & Controls

C.

Centralized Actions & Controls and Decentralized Actions & Controls

D.

Quantitative Actions & Controls and Qualitative Actions & Controls

Question 61

How do the four dimensions of Total Performance contribute to a comprehensive assessment of an organization’s GRC capability?

Options:

A.

By determining the budget allocation for GRC programs and where resources should be applied

B.

By evaluating the performance of departments and individual employees in the context of GRC needs in their roles

C.

By ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements across the organization as a whole and by department

D.

By providing a holistic view of an organization’s GRC capability, evaluating its soundness, cost-effectiveness, agility and ability to withstand disruptions

Question 62

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

Question 63

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

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Total 212 questions