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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 155 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

Question 2

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

Question 3

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

Question 4

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

Question 5

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

Question 6

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

Options:

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

Question 7

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

Question 8

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

Question 9

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

Options:

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

Question 10

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

Question 11

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

Question 12

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

Options:

A.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization.

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event.

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

D.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

Question 13

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

Question 14

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

Options:

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

Question 15

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

Options:

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

Question 16

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

Question 17

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

Question 18

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

Options:

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

Question 19

What is compliance, and how is it measured in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance is a measure of the degree to which obligations are proven to be addressed, and it is measured by assessing requirements, actions & controls to address requirements, and evidence of effectiveness.

B.

Compliance is the ability to avoid legal disputes, and it is measured by the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions filed against the organization.

C.

Compliance is the financial success of the organization, and it is measured by revenue and profit margins.

D.

Compliance is the level of stakeholder satisfaction measured through stakeholder surveys and feedback.

Question 20

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

Question 21

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

Question 22

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

Question 23

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

Question 24

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

Question 25

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

Question 26

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

Question 27

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

Question 28

What is the primary responsibility of the Fourth Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fourth Line, which is the Procurement Department, is responsible for managing vendor relationships and procurement processes.

B.

The Fourth Line, which is the HR department, is responsible for providing training and development opportunities to employees.

C.

The Fourth Line, which is the Compliance Department, is responsible for establishing actions and controls to address regulatory and policy requirements.

D.

The Fourth Line, which is the Executive Team, is accountable and responsible for organization-wide performance, risk, and compliance.

Question 29

What is the duality of compliance, and how does it relate to risk?

Options:

A.

The duality of compliance refers to the distinction between domestic and international regulations that an organization must follow.

B.

The duality of compliance refers to the trade-off between investing in compliance measures and allocating resources to other business areas.

C.

The duality of compliance involves addressing both compliance with obligations and compliance-related risks. Compliance involves meeting mandatory and voluntary obligations, while compliance-related risks involve addressing the risk of negative outcomes associated with non-compliance.

D.

The duality of compliance refers to the balance between financial gains and ethical considerations in business decisions.

Question 30

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

Options:

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

Question 31

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

Question 32

What is the importance of analyzing workforce culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

To analyze the climate and mindsets about workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement

B.

To determine the organization’s commitment to reducing turnover and supporting employee advancement

C.

To ensure the organization’s compliance with environmental regulations and sustainability practices that evidence ethical concern

D.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s employee training in ethical decision-making

Question 33

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

Question 34

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

Question 35

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be "Lean"?

Options:

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

Question 36

What are the four dimensions used to assess Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Quality, Productivity, Flexibility, and Durability

B.

Accuracy, Precision, Speed, and Stability

C.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

D.

Compliance, Consistency, Adaptability, and Robustness

Question 37

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

Question 38

In the context of GRC, what is the significance of setting objectives that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timebound (SMART)?

Options:

A.

SMART objectives can be more easily communicated to stakeholders to gain their confidence

B.

SMART objectives allow the organization to avoid accountability and responsibility for failing to achieve objectives

C.

SMART objectives provide clarity, focus, and direction and help ensure that objectives are effectively aligned with the organization’s goals and priorities

D.

SMART objectives are only relevant for financial objectives and have no impact on non-financial objectives

Question 39

What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization’s external context?

Options:

A.

Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.

B.

Political involvement of competitors.

C.

New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.

D.

New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.

Question 40

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 41

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

Question 42

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

Question 43

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

Question 44

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

Question 45

What is the difference between "inherent effect" and "residual effect" of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of reward

B.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls

C.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of reward

D.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls

Question 46

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

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Total 155 questions