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Nokia 4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 639 questions

Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Click the exhibit button below.

Question # 1

All interfaces are using their default trust states and MPLS is used as the transport tunnel. The SAP-ingress, SAP-egress, and network QoS policies have been configured as shown below. Assume that the default network-queue policy is used on each router.

At router PE 1, customer traffic is arriving marked with DSCP BE and tagged with a dot1p value of 3.

Based on the configuration shown below for the VPRN service, what will be the DSCP and dot1p marking for the packet egressing at router PE 2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

Question 2

Which of the following QoS functions does the slope-policy perform?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Marking

C.

Queuing

D.

Congestion management

E.

Scheduling

Question 3

To manage the shared buffer space at network ports, slope policies are applied on _________ for the ingress direction, and on ________ or _________ for the egress direction.

Options:

A.

Interfaces, ports, SAPs

B.

Ports, ports, MDAs

C.

MDAs, MDAs, ports

D.

Interfaces, interfaces. MDAs

E.

MDAs, ports, interfaces

Question 4

For the Carrier supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-PE1 and SCS-PE2?

Question # 4

Options:

A.

BGP IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

B.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

C.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

D.

LDP labeled routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

Question 5

It is necessary for Tier 1 schedulers to obtain bandwidth from a higher tier scheduler.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 6

When using an egress port scheduler, on which scheduling loop are orphaned queues serviced?

Options:

A.

Level 8 within CIR.

B.

Level 8 between CIR and PIR.

C.

Level 8, once all PIR is serviced.

D.

Level 1 within CIR.

E.

Level 1 between CIR and PIR.

F.

Level 1, once all PIR is serviced.

Question 7

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

Question 8

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

Question # 8

Options:

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

Question 9

Forwarding subclasses are only relevant to, and are therefore applied within the context of, a _____________policy.

Options:

A.

network

B.

scheduling

C.

slope

D.

SAP-ingress

E.

network-queue

Question 10

Which of the following are NOT ingress matching criteria for a network policy? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

TCP port numbers

B.

LSP EXP

C.

DSCP

D.

Source and destination IP addresses

E.

Dot1p priority

Question 11

Which of the following statements about G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Uses standard Ethernet dot1q and QinQ encapsulation.

B.

Requires IS-1S as the protocol to carry control information.

C.

Ethernet Ring APS is a defined ITU standard.

D.

Standard Ethernet forwarding, learning, and flooding rules apply.

Question 12

The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant (first) bits define precedence.

Options:

A.

8, 6, 3

B.

8, 8, 6

C.

16, 8, 4

D.

8, 6, 4

E.

24, 16, 8

Question 13

Which of the following is a feature of LDP VPLS?

Options:

A.

Service labels are assigned based used on label blocks.

B.

BGP-AD, RADIUS and Management are used for auto-discovery.

C.

Service labels are signaled using MP-BGP.

D.

Hierarchical VPLS is loosely defined in the standards.

Question 14

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Question # 14

Options:

A.

All AF traffic will be marked "in-profile" at the SAP-ingress.

B.

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

Question 15

What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

5

F.

8

Question 16

Real-time rate limiting on the service ingress is a feature that performs_____________. Traffic above the defined PIR is ______________.

Options:

A.

Policing, expedited

B.

Metering, marked discard eligible

C.

Marking, marked discard eligible

D.

Policing, discarded

E.

Shaping, discarded

Question 17

Click the exhibit button below. Given this scheduler-policy configuration, which of the following can be said about the scheduler called "high"? (Choose two)

Question # 17

Options:

A.

It is a parent scheduler.

B.

It is the top-level scheduler.

C.

It can allocate up to 50 Mbps of bandwidth to scheduler "low" since the bandwidth is not used by another Tier 3 scheduler.

D.

It is a child scheduler.

E.

It can only have queues as children.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about a Management VPLS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Operates in transparent mode.

B.

Carries RSTP BPDUs only.

C.

Assigns RSTP state to other VPLS services.

D.

Allows load balancing among multiple management VPLS instances.

Question 19

What is an SLA? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider's network.

B.

An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider's network.

C.

An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.

D.

An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider's network.

E.

An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.

Question 20

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), how much bandwidth can the best-effort traffic receive (PIR and CIR) when the ingress rate of each queue is 10Mbps?

Question # 20

Options:

A.

PIR = 4Mbps. CIR = 1Mbps

B.

PIR = 1Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10Mbps, CIR = 1Mbps

D.

PIR = 5Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

Question 21

Which of the following statements is FALSE when providing Internet access using route leaking between a VRF and the global routing table? :>

Options:

A.

It is best used when a single VPN is required to provide Internet access, as well as to maintain VPN connectivity between different customer sites.

B.

If there is no requirement for the VRF to contain the full Internet routing table, a default route to the Internet gateway router is sufficient.

C.

Only one interface on the CE is required for both VPN and Internet connectivity.

D.

The Nokia 7750 SR supports route leaking in full mesh and extranet VPRN topologies only.

Question 22

Which of the following statements regarding policing and shaping on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The larger the configured MBS value, the lower the amount of shaping performed.

B.

When policing is enabled on the SAP-ingress, all traffic is considered as in-profile.

C.

Setting the CIR to 1000 and the PIR to max will enable shapeless policing at 1 Mbps within the SAP-egress policy.

D.

Configuring MBS to equal CBS will disable shaping.

E.

Setting the CIR and PIR to equal values disables soft-policing.

Question 23

In which policies, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. is classification performed? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress policy

B.

SAP-egress policy

C.

IP-criteria policy

D.

Network-queue policy

E.

Slope policy

F.

Network policy

Question 24

Which of the following entities can scheduler policies be applied to? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Network ingress port

B.

Epipe ingress SAP

C.

ES egress SAP

D.

Ingress MDA

E.

VPRN ingress interface

F.

Shared buffer space

Question 25

Click the exhibit.

Question # 25

Router R2 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R4, and sets the local preference to 110. Router R1 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R3, and sets the local preference to 80. Both ASs have a full iBGP mesh. What path does traffic destined to 192.168.1.0/27 take from router R1?

Options:

A.

R1-R3-R8

B.

R1-R2-R4-R8

C.

R1-R3-R4-R8

D.

R1-R2-R4-R3-R8

Question 26

A BGP router has loopback interfaces 192.168.1.1/27 and 192.168.2.1/27 advertised into BGP using the following export policy. The "aggregate 192.168.0.0/16" command is executed. What is the effect of this configuration?

Question # 26

Options:

A.

A single route for 192.168.0.0/16 is advertised.

B.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27, 192.168.2.0/27, and 192.168.0.0/16 are advertised.

C.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.2.0/27 are advertised, and 192.168.0.0/16 appears as a "Blackhole" route in the route table only.

D.

The given export policy is invalid.

Question 27

Based on the default settings for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, when a policy change is made and committed, what action is required by the user for the change to take effect?

Options:

A.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the Local-RIB against the configured export policies.

B.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the RIB-In against the configured import policies.

C.

Execute a command to reset the BGP session with the affected peer or peers.

D.

No further action is required.

Question 28

Which of the following statements regarding BGP Add-Paths is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Add-Paths allows non-best paths to be advertised to a peer.

B.

Add-Paths capabilities are exchanged between peers after the BGP session is established.

C.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to receive multiple paths from its peer.

D.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to send multiple paths to its peer.

Question 29

Which of the following is considered a best practice for BGP address planning?

Options:

A.

Advertising external networks into IGP.

B.

Using system addresses for setting up iBGP sessions.

C.

Exporting the networks associated with the external links of eBGP peers into BGP.

D.

Optimizing BGP route table by exporting IGP routes into BGP.

Question 30

Click the exhibit.

Question # 30

When router A receives the BGP update for the 192.168.0.1/27 prefix, it propagates it to routers B and C. What action is taken by router B when it receives the update?

Options:

A.

Router B propagates the BGP update to routers D and C.

B.

Router B propagates the BGP update to router D.

C.

Router B detects duplicates in its BGP database and discards the update.

D.

Router B propagates the update to routers A, C and D.

Question 31

Click the exhibit.

Question # 31

Router R3 is configured with an import policy to reject updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression ".+ 65540". Which of the following regarding updates originating in AS 65540 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 rejects all updates originating in AS 65540.

B.

Router R3 accepts updates received from router R1 and rejects updates transited through router R2.

C.

Router R3 accepts updates transited through router R2 and rejects updates received from router R1.

D.

Router R3 accepts updates from both routers R1 and R2.

Question 32

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

Options:

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a BGP message type?

Options:

A.

Route-Refresh

B.

OpenSent

C.

Notification

D.

Update

E.

Keepalive

Question 34

Which of the following AS Paths will match the regular expression "65100."?

Options:

A.

"65100"

B.

"65100 65200''

C.

"65200 65100"

D.

"65100 65250 65200"

Question 35

Click the exhibit.

Question # 35

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes on router R1?

Question # 35

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

Click the exhibit.

Question # 36

Given the following configuration for router R1, what is the expected Next Hop for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 as seen on router R2?

Question # 36

Options:

A.

10.0.2.1

B.

10.0.2.2

C.

10.16.10.1

D.

10.16.10.3

Question 37

Click the exhibit.

Question # 37

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R5?

Question # 37

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 38

A BGP session is in OpenConfirm state. Which of the following messages must be received to transition to Established state?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Open

C.

Notification

D.

Keepalive

Question 39

Click the exhibit.

Question # 39

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured. Which of the following configurations is required on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router A to establish an IPv6 BGP session to router D?

Question # 39

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 40

Click on the exhibit.

Question # 40

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the "configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te" command?

Options:

A.

Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.

B.

Routers R1and R4.

C.

Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.

D.

Routers R2 and R3.

Question 41

Click on the exhibit.

Question # 41

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. AS 65541 is advertising prefix 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which routers have the BGP update for the advertised prefix in their BGP table?

Options:

A.

Routers R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5.

B.

Routers R1and R4 only.

C.

Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4 only.

D.

Routers R1, R4 and R5 only.

Question 42

A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200 65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS Path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 100. Which route will appear in the RIB-out?

Options:

A.

Only the first route will appear in the RIB-Out.

B.

Only the second route will appear in the RIB-Out.

C.

Only the third route will appear in the RIB-Out.

D.

All routes will appear in the RIB-Out.

Question 43

Click the exhibit.

Question # 43

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2, R4 and R5. Router R4 receives three routes from router R6 and is configured with ECMP 3. Given the following BGP configuration on routerR4, how many primary and backup paths will be present in router R4's BGP routing table?

Question # 43

Options:

A.

Three primary paths,

B.

Two primary paths and one backup path.

C.

One primary path and two backup paths.

D.

One primary path and one backup path.

Question 44

Click the exhibit.

Question # 44

AS 65550 owns CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R3 is advertising Client1 and Client2 networks into BGP. Router R6 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS 65541 with "summary-only" enabled. Which of the following routes are received by router R7?

Options:

A.

Client1, Client2 and the aggregate.

B.

Only the aggregate.

C.

Only Client1 and the aggregate.

D.

Only Client2 and the aggregate.

Question 45

Click the exhibit.

Question # 45

Routers C and E are route reflectors. When the update for prefix 192.168.2.0/24 is received at router F, what will be the Originator_ID attribute?

Options:

A.

The router ID of router A.

B.

The router ID of router B.

C.

The router ID of router C.

D.

It will not be set.

Question 46

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Prefixes advertised by router R2 have a local preference of 200. Router R1 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R2 and R3. Assuming that router R3 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R4?

Question # 46

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 47

Click the exhibit.

Question # 47

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" on router R5?

Question # 47

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 48

Which of the following regarding BGP authentication on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Authentication is performed before establishing the BGP session.

B.

Authentication can only be configuredon the group or neighbor level.

C.

By default, MD5 authentication is disabled.

D.

Peer authentication may be optionally requested in an open message.

Question 49

If Route Reflector 1 (RR1) is used for Internet routes, and Route Reflector 2 (RR2) is used for VPN routes, which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

B.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

C.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

D.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

Question 50

Click the exhibit.

Question # 50

When configuring the double lookup functionality, which configuration forces the global routing table to be consulted for any packet matching the VPRN default route?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question 51

Click the exhibit.

Question # 51

One Route Distinguisher is assigned per VRF. If CE1 and CE2 advertise prefix 10.1.1.0/24, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 and PE2 advertise the same VPN route to the route reflector.

B.

The route reflector receives two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24; one from PE1 and one from PE2.

C.

The route reflector reflects two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

PE3 receives two routes and is able to load balance traffic across PE1 and PE2.

Question 52

What are the two main benefits of a hub and spoke VPRN design? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Reduced number of VPN tunnels that need to be managed

B.

Centralized filtering policies with the introduction of a hub site

C.

Optimal routing between all sites

D.

Limited configuration required on the hub PE device

Question 53

Click the exhibit.

Question # 53

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. Which route is present in PE1's global routing table?

Options:

A.

192.168.10.1

B.

192.168.20.1

C.

10.10.10.1

D.

10.10.10.6

Question 54

Click the exhibit.

Question # 54

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. If CE1 sends an IP packet to 192.168.200.1, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 pushes a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label on the IP packet.

B.

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and swaps the BGP label.

C.

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label, swaps the VPN label, and pushes an LDP transport label.

D.

CSC-PE2 pops the LDP and VPN labels and pushes a BGP label.

Question 55

VPN-IPv4 addressing is made unique by defining an address structure consisting of:

Options:

A.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Target

B.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Distinguisher

C.

A 64 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

D.

A 64 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

E.

A 32 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address FA 32 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

Question 56

Which of the following about scaling techniques for route reflectors is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors works best when PEs are partitioned to support different VPRNs.

B.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors is simple and scalable, but requires more hardware.

C.

Filtering at route reflectors requires either inbound filtering at the route reflector or outbound filtering at the PE routers.

D.

Filtering at route reflectors allows the route reflector to filter routes received from PEs and only accept routes with a certain route distinguisher.

Question 57

When configuring the CE with the selected CE-PE routing protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following statements is true? (Choose three.)

Question # 57

Options:

A.

The protocol is configured under the config>service context

B.

The protocol is configured under the global router context

C.

The interface leading to the PE is defined as a protocol neighbor

D.

The routing protocol used must be the same as the routing protocol used at other CE-PE locations in the same VPN.

E.

A routing policy may or may not be required depending on the routing requirements and routing protocol

Question 58

Click the exhibit.

Question # 58

Which of the following statements about the implementation of the CE hub and spoke topology is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 advertises spoke routes to CE1.

B.

The primary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

C.

The secondary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from the spoke sites.

D.

Spoke sites do not learn routes from other spoke sites directly.

Question 59

Click the exhibit.

Question # 59

For the CE hub and spoke VPRN, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The primary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from spoke sites.

B.

All traffic between spoke sites must pass through CE1.

C.

The secondary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

D.

PE1 advertises the primary VRF routes to CE1.

Question 60

Which of the following about a full mesh VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Dual CEs connected to redundant PEs can provide redundancy within a single site.

B.

Site redundancy can be achieved by dual homing a single CE to one or more PEs.

C.

Provider core LSPs can be LDP-based or RSVP-based.

D.

The provider core maintains a full mesh of LSP tunnels and MP-BGP sessions between all P devices.

Question 61

Which of the following VPRN label allocation methods are supported by the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

One label per VRF per route

B.

One label per VRF per next-hop

C.

One label per VRF

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C

F.

B and C

Question 62

For a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN where the customer carrier is a BGP/MPLS VPN Service Provider (SP), which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The customer carrier network can be a pure IP network.

B.

The customer carrier provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 services to its end-customers.

C.

A single CSC VPRN is configured on the network provider to support all services offered by the customer carrier.

D.

In the case where the customer carrier offers VPRN services, the model is referred to as hierarchical VPRN.

Question 63

When configuring BGP as the PE-CE protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the configuration on the CE is done under the ____________ context and the PE configuration is under the ____________ context.

Question # 63

Options:

A.

Global, router

B.

Router, router

C.

Service, router

D.

Router, service

E.

Service, service

F.

Router, global

Question 64

Click the exhibit.

Question # 64

The headquarter sites of VPRN 10 and VPRN 20 are part of an extranet VPRN. Which route targets should be exported under the VPRN 20 service on router R1?

Options:

A.

Target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

B.

Target:65100:1 and target:65100:2

C.

Target:65100:1 and target:65100:3

D.

Target:65100:1, target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

Question 65

Click the exhibit.

Question # 65

Assuming that the as-override command is used, what is the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24?

Options:

A.

The prefix is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router.

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

D.

The prefix is located in Autonomous System 65100.

Question 66

For the data packets in a VPRN, how is the inner label in an MPLS packet signaled?

Options:

A.

Signaled via MP-BGP and used to identify the egress PE.

B.

Signaled via T-LDP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

C.

Signaled via MP-BGP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

D.

Signaled via RSVP and LDP and used to identify the egress PE.

E.

Signaled via RSVP and LDP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

Question 67

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on the ASBRs.

B.

The ASBRs exchange data packets that are encapsulated with a transport label and a service label.

C.

The route target advertised in one AS is maintained and used in the remote AS.

D.

The CLI command "configure router bgp enable-inter-as-vpn" is required on the ASBRs.

Question 68

Click the exhibit.

Question # 68

If the displayed command is executed, what is the correct value of AS-Path in the BGP route 172.12.0.0/16 advertised by PE2?

Options:

A.

64491 {64492 64493}

B.

64491

C.

64492 64493 64491

D.

{64492 64493)64491

Question 69

Which of the following about the configuration of BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each PE must implement a policy to apply a unique SoO attribute to the set of routes received from each customer site.

B.

A different BGP extended community is used on each PE that connects to a single site.

C.

An import policy on the PE rejects a route if the attached SoO matches the configured value.

D.

Import and export policies are applied on the PEs under the global BGP context.

Question 70

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The ASBRs use MP-eBGP to peer with each other and exchange IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

B.

The ASBRs use MP-iBGP to peer with PE routers in their autonomous system and exchange VPN-IPv4 routes.

C.

The ASBRs maintain a mapping of labels for IPv4 routes exchanged between autonomous systems.

D.

The ASBRs require per-VPRN configuration.

Question 71

Click the exhibit.

Question # 71

For the PE hub and spoke VPRN, on which PE(s) should the VPRN service command target export target: 65100:1 import target: 65100: 2 " be configured?

Options:

A.

PE1

B.

PE2, PE3 and PE4

C.

PE1, PE2, PE3 and PE4

D.

This command is not required for the configuration of this PE hub and spoke VPRN.

Question 72

What operation does a P device perform when it receives a labeled packet for a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet based on the label signaled by MP-BGP.

B.

It decrements the TTL and forwards the packet based on the inner label.

C.

It swaps the outer label then forwards the packet.

D.

The P router does not perform any operations on labeled packets.

Question 73

Click on the exhibit below.

Question # 73

Study the network diagram. Which of the following configurations is correct for user VPLS 100 on PE4?

Question # 73

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option B

D.

Option C

E.

Option E

Question 74

One of the shortcomings of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is that it computes a valid, but not necessarily optimal, path between nodes within a network.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 75

What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

100

B.

1

C.

25

D.

250

Question 76

What option is available when using PBB to reduce the amount of required VPLS services?

Options:

A.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 mapping of I-VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

B.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 andM:1 mapping of l-VPLS services to B- VPLS services.

C.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

D.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to l-VPLS services.

Question 77

Which service component in the data plane uniquely identifies a VPLS to the far end PE node?

Options:

A.

SDP id

B.

Service ID

C.

VC Label

D.

Tunnel Label

E.

Customer id

Question 78

What needs to be configured in a VPLS in order to forward customer STP BPDUs transparently?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree must be enabled within the VPLS.

B.

Spanning tree BPDUs must be untagged.

C.

Spanning tree BPDUs must be tagged.

D.

Spanning tree must be disabled within the VPLS.

Question 79

Which function of the IEEE 802.1 ag is used for responding to CFM messages but not originating them?

Options:

A.

MEP

B.

MAP

C.

MIP

D.

MUP

Question 80

Click on the exhibit below.

Question # 80

Given the following output what is the most likely reason the SDP binding is operationally down? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The sdp id is different on the far-end.

B.

LDP is disabled on the far-end.

C.

The vc-id is different on the far-end.

D.

The mesh-sdp is missing on the far-end.

E.

The mesh-sdp is administratively shutdown on PEL

F.

There is an MTU mismatch.

Question 81

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

The frame will be flooded.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be fragmented.

Question 82

Which PDU type is sent periodically over a link in the IEEE 802.3ah EFM as a method of keepalive?

Options:

A.

Event notification.

B.

Loopback control.

C.

Information.

D.

Variable request.

E.

Variable response.

Question 83

What is the default Spanning Tree protocol used in a VPLS on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

802.1D2004

B.

802.1D 1998

C.

comp-dot1w

D.

PVST

Question 84

Which of the following statements about a management VPLS are true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A management VPLS carries customer traffic over the non-blocking spoke-SDP

B.

A VPLS service must be defined as a management VPLS upon creation to take on the role of a management VPLS

C.

The state of a spoke-SDP within a user VPLS will take on the state of the spoke-sdp within the management VPLS.

D.

The management VPLS must be created before the user VPLS.

Question 85

When spanning tree is enabled within a VPLS service and the STP mode is 802.1 D 2004 what happens if a PVST BPDU is received on a SAP?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree will be disabled on the SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on.

B.

The SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on will be disabled to prevent loops.

C.

The spanning tree encapsulation will be dynamically changed to PVST on the SAP the PVST BPDU was received on.

D.

The PVST BPDU will be ignored and 802.1D 2004 BPDUs will continue to be transmitted on the SAP.

Question 86

You are providing a customer two VPLS services in two different Metro networks. VPLS 500 has been configured in Metro 1 and VPLS 900 has been configured in Metro 2. The customer has requested that they have connectivity between the Metro Networks with their existing VPLS services. Which configuration on the PE routers linking the metro networks will allow for VPLS 500 and VPLS 900 to act as a single VPLS service? Assume default values for all VPLS parameters and SDP 999 exists between the metro networks.

Question # 86

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 87

Five VPLS services have been configured between two PE routers. What is the minimum amount of SDPs that must be configured?

Options:

A.

5-one for each service.

B.

2-one in each direction.

C.

10-five in each direction.

D.

None of the above.

Question 88

Click on the exhibit below.

Question # 88

A new site is added to PE-D of Metro B. Which of the following statement below is true?

Options:

A.

If a spoke-SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

B.

If a mesh- SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

C.

A mesh- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

D.

A spoke- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

Question 89

Click on the exhibit below.

Question # 89

Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?

Options:

A.

It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2.

B.

The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac address association.

C.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1.

D.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4.

Question 90

What is the name of the feature supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR that prevents MAC explosion in large VPLS deployments?

Options:

A.

H-VPLS

B.

M-VPLS

C.

PBB

D.

MC-EP

Question 91

Which of the following are required for an operational mesh-sdp binding for bidirectional traffic when signaling is enabled within the SDP? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

LDP must be enabled.

B.

RSVP must be enabled.

C.

An SDP must be configured on the far-end.

D.

Service MTU must match.

E.

SDP ID must match.

Question 92

What action will be taken when an Ethernet switch receives a frame with a known DA and an outer Ethertype value of 0x0800 on a dot1q encapsulated port?

Options:

A.

The frame will be forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be flooded to all ports.

D.

The frame will be fragmented and forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

Question 93

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

VPLS is a bridged LAN service.

B.

VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs.

C.

VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point-to-point virtual circuits.

D.

CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

Question 94

Click on the exhibit below.

Question # 94

Which bridge will become the root bridge?

Options:

A.

Bridge B

B.

Bridge C

C.

Bridge D

D.

Bridge E

Question 95

Which OAM tool can be used to dynamically learn the MAC address of a CE device connected to a SAP within a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

oam mac-populate

B.

oam mac-ping

C.

oam mac-trace

D.

oam svc-ping

E.

oam cpe-ping

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Total 639 questions