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Isaca IT-Risk-Fundamentals IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 118 questions

IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?

Options:

A.

File integrity monitoring (FIM) on personal database stores

B.

Air conditioning systems with excess capacity to permit failure of certain components

C.

Data management checks on sensitive data processing procedures

Question 2

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to conduct a penetration test?

Options:

A.

To validate the results of a vulnerability assessment

B.

To validate the results of a control self-assessment

C.

To validate the results of a threat assessment

Question 3

As part of the control monitoring process, frequent control exceptions are MOST likely to indicate:

Options:

A.

excessive costs associated with use of a control.

B.

misalignment with business priorities.

C.

high risk appetite throughout the enterprise.

Question 4

Which types of controls are designed to avoid undesirable events, errors, and other adverse occurrences?

Options:

A.

Corrective controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Preventive controls

Question 5

When determining the criticality of I&T assets, it is MOST important to identify:

Options:

A.

the asset owners who are accountable for asset valuation.

B.

the business processes in which the asset is used to achieve objectives.

C.

the infrastructure in which the asset is processed and stored.

Question 6

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics designed to:

Options:

A.

alert there is an increased chance of exceeding risk appetite.

B.

be a direct measure of risk for each business line.

C.

measure current risk levels in comparison to past levels.

Question 7

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern with vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

Threat mitigation

B.

Report size

C.

False positives

Question 8

As part of an I&T related risk assessment, which of the following should be reviewed to obtain an initial view of overall I&T related risk for the enterprise?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities for each risk factor identified

B.

Components of the risk register with remediation plans

C.

Components of the risk universe at a high level

Question 9

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when aggregating risk information in management reports?

Options:

A.

Duplicating details of risk status

B.

Obfuscating the reasons behind risk

C.

Generalizing acceptable risk levels

Question 10

An enterprise that uses a two-factor authentication login method for accessing sensitive data has implemented which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

Question 11

Potential losses resulting from employee errors and system failures are examples of:

Options:

A.

operational risk.

B.

market risk.

C.

strategic risk.

Question 12

Which of the following is the FIRST step in an advanced persistent threat (APT) attack?

Options:

A.

Identify administrators and crack passwords to obtain administrator access.

B.

Use social engineering to encourage employees to visit an infected website.

C.

Collect information on the infrastructure of an organization to know where to attack.

Question 13

One of the PRIMARY purposes of threat intelligence is to understand:

Options:

A.

zero-day threats.

B.

breach likelihood.

C.

asset vulnerabilities.

Question 14

Of the following, which stakeholder group is MOST often responsible for risk governance?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Business units

Question 15

An enterprise recently implemented multi-factor authentication. During the most recent risk assessment, it was determined that cybersecurity risk is within the organization's risk appetite threshold. What is the MOST appropriate action for the organization to take regarding the remaining cybersecurity residual risk?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Mitigate

C.

Transfer

Question 16

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with IT hardware or devices?

Options:

A.

Loss of source code

B.

Lack of interoperability

C.

Sniffing attack

Question 17

When selecting a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the KRI:

Options:

A.

supports established KPIs.

B.

produces multiple and varied results.

C.

is a reliable predictor of the risk event.

Question 18

Which of the following is an example of a tangible and assessable representation of risk?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk policy

B.

Risk treatment plan

C.

Risk scenario

Question 19

Of the following, who is BEST suited to be responsible for continuous monitoring of risk?

Options:

A.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

Risk analysts

C.

Risk owners

Question 20

Which of the following is the BEST way to interpret enterprise standards?

Options:

A.

A means of implementing policy

B.

An approved code of practice

Q Documented high-level principles

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason to perform a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions

B.

To aggregate risk in a meaningful way for a comprehensive view of enterprise risk

C.

To map the value of benefits that can be directly compared to the cost of a risk response

Question 22

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a cost-benefit analysis as part of a risk response business case?

Options:

A.

To determine if the reduction in risk is sufficient to justify the cost of implementing the response

B.

To determine the future resource requirements and funding needed to monitor the related risk

C.

To calculate the total return on investment (ROI) over time and benefit to enterprise risk management (ERM)

Question 23

The MOST important reason for developing and monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide:

Options:

A.

measurable metrics for acceptable risk levels.

B.

information about control compliance.

C.

an early warning of possible risk materialization.

Question 24

Which of the following is the MAIN objective of governance?

Options:

A.

Creating controls throughout the entire organization

B.

Creating risk awareness at all levels of the organization

C.

Creating value through investments for the organization

Question 25

An enterprise’s risk policy should be aligned with its:

Options:

A.

current risk.

B.

risk capacity.

C.

risk appetite.

Question 26

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized user access in a remote work environment?

Options:

A.

Read-only user privileges

B.

Multi-factor authentication

C.

Monthly user access recertification

Question 27

Risk monitoring is MOST effective when it is conducted:

Options:

A.

following changes to the business's environment.

B.

before and after completing the risk treatment plan.

C.

throughout the risk treatment planning process.

Question 28

The PRIMARY goal of a business continuity plan (BCP) is to enable the enterprise to provide:

Options:

A.

a detailed list of hardware and software requirements to enable business functionality after an interruption.

B.

an immediate return of all business functionality after an interruption.

C.

a sufficient level of business functionality immediately after an interruption.

Question 29

A key risk indicator (KRI) is PRIMARILY used for which of the following purposes?

Options:

A.

Optimizing risk management

B.

Predicting risk events

C.

Facilitating dashboard reporting

Question 30

Which of the following is the MAIN advantage of a risk taxonomy?

Options:

A.

It enables risk quantification.

B.

It provides a scheme for classifying categories of risk.

C.

It promotes alignment with industry best practices for risk management.

Question 31

An enterprise has initiated a project to implement a risk-mitigating control. Which of the following would provide senior management with the MOST useful information on the project's status?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk heat map

C.

Risk report

Question 32

Which of the following are control conditions that exist in IT systems and may be exploited by an attacker?

Options:

A.

Cybersecurity risk scenarios

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Threats

Question 33

To address concerns of increased online skimming attacks, an enterprise is training the software development team on secure software development practices. This is an example of which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk mitigation

Question 34

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure when preparing a risk report?

Options:

A.

The risk report should be published for transparency and enterprise risk awareness.

B.

The risk report should be uniform for all stakeholders to ensure consistency.

C.

The risk report should be customized to stakeholder expectations.

Question 35

Which of the following is important to ensure when validating the results of a frequency analysis?

Options:

A.

Estimates used during the analysis were based on reliable and historical data.

B.

The analysis was conducted by an independent third party.

C.

The analysis method has been fully documented and explained.

Page: 1 / 12
Total 118 questions