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Isaca CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Exam Practice Test

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Total 1895 questions

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

Options:

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

Question 2

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) provides the BEST insight into the risk associated with IT systems being unable to meet the required availability service level in the future?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT systems having defined incident management service levels

B.

Percentage of IT systems having met the availability service level

C.

Percentage of IT outsourced systems having met the availability service level

D.

Percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization

Question 3

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

Options:

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

Question 4

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Risk heat map

C.

IT capacity

D.

Risk culture

Question 5

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Review industry best practice.

D.

Review risk governance policies.

Question 6

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

Question 7

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

Question 8

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

Options:

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

Question 9

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

Options:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

Question 10

Which of the following is the MOST valuable data source to support the optimization of an existing key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Frameworks and standards

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Organizational policies

D.

Historical losses and incidents

Question 11

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

Options:

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

Question 12

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

Options:

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

Question 13

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

Options:

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

Question 14

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

Question 15

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

Options:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

Question 16

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

Question 17

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

Question 18

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

Options:

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

Question 19

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

Options:

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

Question 20

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

Options:

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

Question 21

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

Question 22

IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:

Options:

A.

maximum tolerable downtime.

B.

maximum tolerable loss of data.

C.

need of each business unit.

D.

type of business.

Question 23

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

Options:

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

Question 24

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the second line when an IT risk management framework is adopted?

Options:

A.

Overseeing the execution of framework requirements

B.

Implementing the framework requirements

C.

Advising industry standard framework organizations

D.

Auditing the execution of framework requirements

Question 25

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

Question 26

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

Question 27

Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk management

D.

IT management

Question 28

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

Question 29

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

Question 30

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

Question 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

Question 32

An organization is implementing Internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

C.

Insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Impact on network performance

Question 33

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

Question 34

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

Options:

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

Question 35

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

Options:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

Question 36

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

Options:

A.

Develop a risk treatment plan.

B.

Validate organizational risk appetite.

C.

Review results of prior risk assessments.

D.

Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

Question 37

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and enterprise risk management (ERM), it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Risk velocity.

C.

Risk response plans and owners.

D.

Risk impact and likelihood.

Question 38

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

Question 39

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

Question 40

Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:

Options:

A.

Mapped to the corresponding business areas.

B.

Aligned with corporate security policies.

C.

Effectively implemented and maintained.

D.

Designed based on standards and frameworks.

Question 41

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

Options:

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

Question 42

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of analyzing control effectiveness during risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To enable a control cost-benefit analysis

B.

To evaluate the risk impact

C.

To determine the likelihood of occurrence

D.

To determine the current risk level

Question 43

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

Question 44

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

Question 45

Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:

Options:

A.

the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters

B.

international law and a uniform set of regulations.

C.

the laws and regulations of each individual country

D.

international standard-setting bodies.

Question 46

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

Question 47

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

Question 48

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

Question 49

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

Question 50

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

Options:

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

Question 51

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

Question 52

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

Question 53

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

Options:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

Question 54

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

Question 55

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

Question 56

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

Question 57

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

Options:

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

Question 58

The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:

Options:

A.

stakeholder risk tolerance.

B.

benchmarking criteria.

C.

suppliers used by the organization.

D.

the control environment.

Question 59

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

Question 60

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

Question 61

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 62

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

Question 63

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

Question 64

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

Question 65

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

Question 66

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

Question 67

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

Options:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

Question 68

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

Options:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

Question 69

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

Options:

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

Question 70

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes implemented successfully

B.

Percentage of rejected change requests

C.

Number of after-hours emergency changes

D.

Number of change control requests

Question 71

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Question 72

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization's critical assets?

Options:

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

Question 73

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

Question 74

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

Question 75

A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:

Options:

A.

user requests and tests the change prior to production.

B.

user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.

C.

programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.

D.

programmer writes and promotes code into production.

Question 76

Where should a risk practitioner document the current state and desired future state of organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk action plan

C.

Risk management strategy

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 77

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

Question 78

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

Options:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

Question 79

Which of the following risk register elements is MOST likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced?

Options:

A.

Likelihood rating

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Assessment approach

D.

Impact rating

Question 80

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

Options:

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 81

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for communicating an organization’s risk level to senior management?

Options:

A.

A list of organizational threats

B.

A high-level risk map

C.

Specialized risk publications

D.

A list of organizational vulnerabilities

Question 82

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

Options:

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

Question 83

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?

Options:

A.

Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.

B.

Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.

C.

Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.

D.

Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.

Question 84

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when determining whether to approve a policy exception request?

Options:

A.

Volume of exceptions

B.

Lack of technical resources

C.

Cost of noncompliance

D.

Time required to implement controls

Question 85

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes'?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

Question 86

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

Question 87

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

Question 88

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

Question 89

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

Question 90

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

Question 91

An internal audit report reveals that a legacy system is no longer supported Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action before recommending a risk response'

Options:

A.

Review historical application down me and frequency

B.

Assess the potential impact and cost of mitigation

C.

identify other legacy systems within the organization

D.

Explore the feasibility of replacing the legacy system

Question 92

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

Question 93

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Question 94

A key risk indicator (KRI) for technology operations has been above risk thresholds for the last three reporting periods. What is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adjust the original thresholds for the KRI for future reporting periods

B.

Initiate corrective actions with the accountable risk owner

C.

Implement forward-looking risk metrics to compare results

D.

Continue monitoring the KRI for changes in subsequent reporting periods

Question 95

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

Question 96

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

Options:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

Question 97

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

Options:

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

Question 98

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

Question 99

A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?

Options:

A.

Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.

B.

Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.

C.

Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.

D.

Ensuring read-write access to all log sources

Question 100

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Question 101

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

Options:

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

Question 102

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

Question 103

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

Question 104

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?

Options:

A.

Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.

B.

Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.

C.

Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.

D.

Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.

Question 105

Which of the following metrics is BEST used to communicate to senior management that the control environment manages risk within appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Number of security incidents

B.

Reduction in control expenditures

C.

Number of risk responses executed

D.

Reduction in residual risk

Question 106

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

Options:

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

Question 107

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

Options:

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

Question 108

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with local legislation because it has a higher priority.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop mitigation options.

C.

Terminate the current cloud contract and migrate to a local cloud provider.

D.

Accept the risk because foreign legislation does not apply to the organization.

Question 109

The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

Options:

A.

the risk strategy is appropriate

B.

KRIs and KPIs are aligned

C.

performance of controls is adequate

D.

the risk monitoring process has been established

Question 110

A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:

Options:

A.

validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.

B.

assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.

C.

identifying IT assets that support key business processes.

D.

defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture

Question 111

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

Question 112

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

Question 113

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

Question 114

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

Question 115

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

Options:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

Question 116

An organization has implemented a cloud-based backup solution to help prevent loss of transactional data from offices in an earthquake zone. This strategy demonstrates risk:

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Acceptance

Question 117

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 118

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?

Options:

A.

It promotes a security-aware culture.

B.

It enables vulnerability analysis.

C.

It enhances internal risk reporting.

D.

It provides risk information to auditors.

Question 119

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

Options:

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

Question 120

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Question 121

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

Question 122

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

Options:

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

Question 123

An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization's industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Average the ransomware attack frequencies together

B.

Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types

C.

Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom

D.

Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation

Question 124

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

Options:

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

Question 125

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

Question 126

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

Question 127

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

Question 128

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

Question 129

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

Question 130

During the internal review of an accounts payable process, a risk practitioner determines that the transaction approval limits configured in the system are not being enforced. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify the extent of the approval limit violations.

B.

Notify senior management of the system deficiency.

C.

Update the risk register with higher risk likelihood of violation.

D.

Remind users of the importance of adhering to approval limits.

Question 131

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

Question 132

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

Question 133

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

Options:

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

Question 134

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

Question 135

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

Question 136

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

Question 137

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

Options:

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

Question 138

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

Question 139

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

Options:

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

Question 140

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

Options:

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

Question 141

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

Options:

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

Question 142

Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk sensitivity

D.

Risk velocity

Question 143

When developing IT risk scenarios, it is MOST important to consider:

Options:

A.

The industry's threat profile.

B.

Incidents occurring at similar organizations.

C.

System performance thresholds.

D.

Organizational objectives.

Question 144

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

Question 145

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

Question 146

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

Question 147

Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

Options:

A.

ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

B.

enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

C.

monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D.

providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

Question 148

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 149

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

Question 150

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

Options:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

Question 151

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

Question 152

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

Question 153

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

Options:

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 154

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

Question 155

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

Options:

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

Question 156

An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simul-ation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?

Options:

A.

Deterrent

B.

Preventive

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Question 157

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management's risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

Question 158

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

Options:

A.

define the IT risk framework for the organization

B.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting

C.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies

D.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance

Question 159

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

Question 160

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on ensuring the alignment of the risk profile with business objectives?

Options:

A.

An effective enterprise-wide risk awareness program

B.

Senior management approval of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Stage gate reviews throughout the risk management process

D.

Incorporation of industry best practice benchmarks and standards

Question 161

An automobile manufacturer is considering implementing an Internet of Things (IoT) network to improve customer service by collecting customer and vehicle data. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Establish secure design and coding practices for the IoT network and devices

B.

Conduct a pilot program before implementing the IoT network and devices

C.

Ensure backward compatibility of IoT devices with previous generations of vehicles

D.

Provide a range of IoT device options and configurations for customers

Question 162

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 163

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

Options:

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

Question 164

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 165

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

Question 166

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

Question 167

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

Question 168

Options:

A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 169

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

Question 170

Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?

Options:

A.

Background checks

B.

Awareness training

C.

User access

D.

Policy management

Question 171

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) for its operations

B.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall

D.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards

Question 172

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

Question 173

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

Options:

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

Question 174

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

Question 175

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

Question 176

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Question 177

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

Question 178

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?

Options:

A.

To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization

B.

To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls

C.

To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements

D.

To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register

Question 179

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

Question 180

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

Options:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

Question 181

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

Options:

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

Question 182

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

Question 183

Which key performance indicator (KPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of disaster recovery scenarios identified

B.

Percentage of employees involved in the disaster recovery exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within the recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 184

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

Question 185

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

Question 186

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

Question 187

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

Question 188

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

Question 189

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

Options:

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

Question 190

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend be done prior to disposal of server hardware containing confidential data?

Options:

A.

Destroy the hard drives.

B.

Encrypt the backup.

C.

Update the asset inventory.

D.

Remove all user access.

Question 191

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

Options:

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

Question 192

Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) to protect personal information on corporate mobile endpoints?

Options:

A.

Percentage of endpoints that are not encrypted

B.

Number of endpoints not compliant with patching policy

C.

Ratio of undiscoverable endpoints to encrypted endpoints

D.

Percentage of endpoints with outdated antivirus signatures

Question 193

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

Options:

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

Question 194

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

Options:

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

Question 195

How should an organization approach the retention of data that is no longer needed for business operations?

Options:

A.

Data should be retained for a reasonable period of time in case of system rollback.

B.

Data should be destroyed or retained on the basis of a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Data should be retained based on regulatory requirements.

D.

Data should be destroyed to avoid any risk exposure.

Question 196

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

Question 197

A user has contacted the risk practitioner regarding malware spreading laterally across the organization's corporate network. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review all log files generated during the period of malicious activity.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Notify the cybersecurity incident response team.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 198

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

Question 199

After the review of a risk record, internal audit questioned why the risk was lowered from medium to low. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in responding to this inquiry?

Options:

A.

Obtain industry benchmarks related to the specific risk.

B.

Provide justification for the lower risk rating.

C.

Notify the business at the next risk briefing.

D.

Reopen the risk issue and complete a full assessment.

Question 200

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

Options:

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

Question 201

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

Question 202

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

Question 203

To effectively address ethical risk within an organization, who MUST ensure the ethics policy is enforced and equally applied to all levels of authority'?

Options:

A.

Local authorities and regulators

B.

Ethics and compliance team

C.

Senior management

D.

Internal audit team

Question 204

An organization's HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insideractivities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Number of malicious activities occurring during staff members leave

B.

Percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy

C.

Percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members' leave

Question 205

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

Question 206

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 207

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

Options:

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

Question 208

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

Question 209

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

Options:

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

Question 210

Which of the following risk scenarios should be considered in a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

A pandemic situation requiring remote work

B.

A ransomware attack affecting critical systems

C.

A vendor failing to notify the organization of a data breach

D.

Hacking activity leading to theft of sensitive data

Question 211

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

Question 212

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important course of action when the level of risk has exceeded risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a review of risk tolerance levels

B.

Adjust the risk impact and likelihood scale

C.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Introduce the risk treatment process

Question 213

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C.

Risk-based audits

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 214

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

Question 215

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

Question 216

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

A change in the risk management policy

B.

A major security incident

C.

A change in the regulatory environment

D.

An increase in intrusion attempts

Question 217

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

Question 218

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

Question 219

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 220

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

Question 221

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 222

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when assessing the risk exposure associated with ransomware?

Options:

A.

Potentially impacted business processes

B.

Recent changes in the environment

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Suspected phishing events

Question 223

A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

Options:

A.

Protect sensitive information with access controls.

B.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

C.

Re-communicate the data protection policy.

D.

Implement a data encryption solution.

Question 224

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

Question 225

The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Number of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame

C.

Number of patches deployed outside of business hours

D.

Percentage of patched systems tested

Question 226

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

Question 227

Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive security training of developers

B.

Validated security requirements and design documents

C.

Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements

Question 228

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

Options:

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

Question 229

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

Question 230

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor’s AI technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Regular security updates

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Adequate vendor support

Question 231

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

Question 232

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

Question 233

As part of an aggressive new marketing strategy, an organization has decided to implement an emerging technology in a critical business system. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the risk associated with this new technology?

Options:

A.

Update the risk tolerance and appetite

B.

Identify technical solutions

C.

Obtain senior management support

D.

Re-evaluate the risk and existing controls

Question 234

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

Question 235

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

Question 236

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of reviewing security trends reported by a log monitoring system?

Options:

A.

Identification of process weaknesses

B.

Assessment of system performance

C.

Confirmation that risk is at acceptable levels

D.

Identification of emerging risk scenarios

Question 237

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Question 238

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

Question 239

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 240

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

Options:

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

Question 241

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

Question 242

An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

Options:

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 243

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

Options:

A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

Question 244

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

Question 245

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

Question 246

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

Options:

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

Question 247

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

Question 248

Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk register details

D.

Risk financial impact

Question 249

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

Question 250

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 251

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

Options:

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

Question 252

Which of the following provides the BEST level of assurance to an organization that its vendors' controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Control matrix documentation

B.

Vendor security reports

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

An independent third-party audit

Question 253

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

Question 254

Automated code reviews to reduce the risk associated with web applications are MOST effective when performed:

Options:

A.

throughout development

B.

during pre-production testing

C.

in the design phase

D.

once in the production environment

Question 255

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

Question 256

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

Options:

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

Question 257

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

Question 258

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

Options:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

Question 259

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

Options:

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

Question 260

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

Question 261

Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?

Options:

A.

Control standard operating procedures

B.

Latest security assessment

C.

Current security threat report

D.

Updated risk register

Question 262

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

Question 263

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

Options:

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

Question 264

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

Question 265

Risk mitigation is MOST effective when which of the following is optimized?

Options:

A.

Operational risk

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Regulatory risk

Question 266

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

Options:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

Question 267

An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?

Options:

A.

Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.

B.

Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.

C.

Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.

D.

Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.

Question 268

Which of the following occurs during the implementation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of updated coding into production

B.

Collaboration with stakeholders to gather system requirements

C.

Development of architectural designs based on system requirements

D.

Formal authorization for deploying the system into production

Question 269

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

Question 270

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

Question 271

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

Question 272

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

Options:

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

Question 273

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 274

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

Question 275

A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

reflect the results of risk assessments.

B.

be available to all stakeholders.

C.

effectively support a business maturity model.

D.

be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

Question 276

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

Options:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

Question 277

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

Question 278

Several vulnerabilities have been identified in an organization’s core financial systems. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the associated risk.

B.

Determine the cost of remediation.

C.

Initiate the incident response plan.

D.

Remediate the vulnerabilities.

Question 279

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

Question 280

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

Question 281

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

Question 282

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

Question 283

To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?

Options:

A.

business owner

B.

IT department

C.

Risk manager

D.

Third-party provider

Question 284

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

Question 285

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

Options:

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

Question 286

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

Question 287

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

Question 288

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

Options:

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

Question 289

Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The risk owner

B.

The person who identified the risk

C.

The control owner

D.

The risk response owner

Question 290

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

Question 291

When developing a business continuity plan (BCP), it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

identify an alternative location to host operations.

B.

identify a geographically dispersed disaster recovery site.

C.

prioritize critical services to be restored.

D.

develop a multi-channel communication plan.

Question 292

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

Options:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

Question 293

A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

Question 294

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

Question 295

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

Options:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

Question 296

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

Options:

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

Question 297

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line of defense with respect to information security policies?

Options:

A.

Draft the information security policy.

B.

Approve the information security policy.

C.

Audit the implementation of the information security policy.

D.

Implement controls in response to the policy requirements.

Question 298

An organization uses an automated vulnerability scanner to identify potential vulnerabilities on various enterprise systems. Who is accountable for ensuring the vulnerabilities are mitigated?

Options:

A.

Data owners

B.

Information security manager

C.

System administrators

D.

System owners

Question 299

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

Options:

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

Question 300

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

Options:

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

Question 301

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

Question 302

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

Question 303

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

Question 304

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

Question 305

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

Question 306

Which of the following BEST protects an organization against breaches when using a software as a service (SaaS) application?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions

C.

Data privacy impact assessment (DPIA)

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP) tools

Question 307

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

Question 308

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

Options:

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

Question 309

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

Question 310

Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Awareness training participation rate

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Senior management interviews

D.

Risk management framework

Question 311

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

Question 312

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

Options:

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

Question 313

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

Question 314

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

Question 315

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

Question 316

A PRIMARY objective of disaster recovery is to:

Options:

A.

Improve infrastructure of physical locations

B.

Restore critical business and IT services

C.

Recover financial data and statements

D.

Maintain operational processes and connectivity

Question 317

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

Question 318

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

Options:

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

Question 319

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

Question 320

To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization's policy framework is:

Options:

A.

Approved by relevant stakeholders.

B.

Aligned to the functional business structure.

C.

Included in employee onboarding materials.

D.

Mapped to an industry-standard framework.

Question 321

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

Question 322

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

Question 323

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

Options:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

Question 324

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

Question 325

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

Question 326

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

Question 327

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

Question 328

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

Question 329

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

Options:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

Question 330

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

Question 331

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?

Options:

A.

Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets

B.

Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses

C.

Ensuring patching for end-user devices

D.

Providing encrypted access to organizational assets

Question 332

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

Question 333

Which of the following activities is MOST likely to be assigned to the second line in the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Validating whether IT risk control systems are operational

B.

Monitoring IT security policy compliance

C.

Calculating phishing attack key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Appropriately configuring the web application firewall (WAF)

Question 334

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

Options:

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

Question 335

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

Question 336

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 337

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Question 338

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

Question 339

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

Question 340

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

Options:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

Question 341

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

Question 342

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

Question 343

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

Question 344

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

Question 345

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

Options:

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

Question 346

Which of the following is the MOST important for an organization to have in place to ensure IT asset protection?

Options:

A.

Procedures for risk assessments on IT assets

B.

An IT asset management checklist

C.

An IT asset inventory populated by an automated scanning tool

D.

A plan that includes processes for the recovery of IT assets

Question 347

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

Question 348

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

Options:

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

Question 349

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

Question 350

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

Question 351

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

Question 352

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied

B.

Enforcing that changes are authorized

C.

Deterring illicit actions of database administrators

D.

Preventing system developers from accessing production data

Question 353

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

Options:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

Question 354

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

Question 355

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

Question 356

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.

B.

Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.

C.

Monitor the activity to collect evidence.

D.

Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.

Question 357

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Risk scenarios used for the plan were last tested two years ago.

B.

The IT steering committee determined the application recovery priorities.

C.

The disaster recovery plan (DRP) does not identify a hot site.

D.

The call list in the plan was last updated a year ago.

Question 358

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

Question 359

Which of the following is a benefit of implementing user and entity behavior analytics to help mitigate information security threats?

Options:

A.

Device activity is centrally logged.

B.

Changes to user credentials are monitored.

C.

Data assets are effectively inventoried.

D.

Attacks are identified against a baseline of activity.

Question 360

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

Question 361

Which of the following would BEST support the integrity of online financial transactions?

Options:

A.

Developing an integrated audit facility

B.

Implementing audit trail logs

C.

Deploying multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Implementing blockchain technology

Question 362

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 363

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

Question 364

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 365

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 366

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

Question 367

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

Question 368

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?

Options:

A.

Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.

B.

Conduct a compliance check against standards.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Measure the change in inherent risk.

Question 369

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

Question 370

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

Question 371

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

Options:

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

Question 372

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

Options:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

Question 373

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

Options:

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

Question 374

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

How severe the vulnerability is across the industry

B.

Whether the affected technology is internet-facing

C.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

D.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

Question 375

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

Question 376

Which of the following is MOST likely to be identified from an information systems audit report?

Options:

A.

Resiliency

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Data ownership

D.

Vulnerabilities

Question 377

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

Question 378

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

Question 379

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

Question 380

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.

B.

Update spam filters

C.

Revise the acceptable use policy

D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures

Question 381

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 382

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier's contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

Question 383

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

Options:

A.

Vendor's information security officer

B.

Customer's data privacy officer

C.

Customer's data owner

D.

Vendor's application owner

Question 384

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

Options:

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

Question 385

Which of the following is MOST likely to result in a major change to the overall risk profile of the organization?

Options:

A.

Changes in internal and external risk factors

B.

Changes in internal and external auditors

C.

Changes in risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

Changes in vulnerability assessment and penetration testing

Question 386

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

Question 387

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

Options:

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

Question 388

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Question 389

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

Question 390

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

Question # 390

Options:

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

Question 391

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

Question 392

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

Options:

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

Question 393

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

Question 394

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

Options:

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

Question 395

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

Question 396

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

Question 397

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 398

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

Question 399

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 400

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

Question 401

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

Question 402

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

Question 403

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with using cloud computing for disaster recovery?

Options:

A.

Cloud vendor lock-in and dependency

B.

Lack of adequate incident management capabilities

C.

Use of multiple cloud access service brokers (CASBs)

D.

Availability issues with cloud storage solutions

Question 404

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

Question 405

An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

Question 406

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

Question 407

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

Options:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

Question 408

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

Question 409

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

Options:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

Question 410

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?

Options:

A.

Regular employee security awareness training

B.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

C.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 411

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

Question 412

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

Options:

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

Question 413

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes.

Question 414

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

Question 415

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

Question 416

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

Question 417

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

Question 418

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to integrate IT risk management practices into the enterprise-wide operational risk management framework?

Options:

A.

To reduce conflicts of interest between IT and non-IT business units

B.

To align the operational risk management framework with regulatory requirements

C.

To optimize the efficiency of enterprise-wide risk management resources

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are reflected in the corporate risk profile

Question 419

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for Internet of Things (loT) devices that are accessed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Identity and access management (IAM)

B.

Comprehensive patching program

C.

Source code reviews

D.

Adoption of a defense-in-depth strategy

Question 420

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

Options:

A.

Unknown vulnerabilities

B.

Legacy technology systems

C.

Network isolation

D.

Overlapping threats

Question 421

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

Options:

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

Question 422

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

Question 423

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

Options:

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

Question 424

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

Question 425

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

Options:

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

Question 426

A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Update the KRI threshold.

B.

Recommend additional controls.

C.

Review incident handling procedures.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

Question 427

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

Question 428

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 429

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

Options:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

Question 430

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

Question 431

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

Question 432

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

Options:

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

Question 433

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

Question 434

Which of the following functions independently reviews and provides feedback regarding the achievement of organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Internal audit

C.

IT governance

D.

Senior leadership

Question 435

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

Options:

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

Question 436

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

Question 437

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

Question 438

Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up identification of emerging risks

B.

Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy

C.

Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity

D.

Review of external loss data

Question 439

An organization must make a choice among multiple options to respond to a risk. The stakeholders cannot agree and decide to postpone the decision. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Avoidance

D.

Acceptance

Question 440

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

Question 441

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.

B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.

C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.

D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.

Question 442

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting risk indicators (KRIs)? The ability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor the performance of a process

B.

Assess the risk associated with risk scenarios

C.

Measure changes in the threat landscape

D.

Refine the organization’s risk appetite

Question 443

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 444

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

Question 445

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

Options:

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

Question 446

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

Options:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

Question 447

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

Question 448

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

Question 449

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk and likelihood

B.

Management action plans associated with audit findings

C.

Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI) trends

Question 450

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

Question 451

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 452

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 453

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

Question 454

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization's market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

Question 455

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

Options:

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

Question 456

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

Options:

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

Question 457

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting and designing key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

The KCI can establish a formal correlation with relevant KRIs

B.

The KCI can demonstrate whether the control objective has been met

C.

The KCI can be implemented within the allocated budget

D.

The KCI can be measured using quantitative methods

Question 458

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

Question 459

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

Options:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

Question 460

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

Question 461

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

Question 462

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

Question 463

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation regarding disaster recovery management (DRM) for Software as a Service (SaaS) providers?

Options:

A.

Conduct inoremental backups of data in the SaaS environment to a local data center.

B.

Implement segregation of duties between multiple SaaS solution providers.

C.

Codify availability requirements in the SaaS provider's contract.

D.

Conduct performance benchmarking against other SaaS service providers.

Question 464

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

Question 465

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

Question 466

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

Question 467

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

Question 468

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

Question 469

An organization's finance team is proposing the adoption of a blockchain technology to provide a secure method for moving funds. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend permissionless blockchain.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Recommend permissioned blockchain.

Question 470

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

Question 471

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

Options:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

Question 472

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 473

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

Question 474

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

Options:

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

Question 475

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

Question 476

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

Question 477

A business unit has implemented robotic process automation (RPA) for its

repetitive back-office tasks. Which of the following should be the risk

practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The security team is unaware of the implementation.

B.

The organization may lose institutional knowledge.

C.

The robots may fail to work effectively.

D.

Virtual clients are used for implementation.

Question 478

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.

B.

Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.

D.

Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.

Question 479

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

Question 480

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

Question 481

The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:

Options:

A.

is updated based upon significant events.

B.

documents possible countermeasures.

C.

contains the risk assessment completion date.

D.

is regularly audited.

Question 482

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

Options:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

Question 483

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

Question 484

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

Options:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

Question 485

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

Question 486

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

Question 487

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

Question 488

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

Question 489

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

Question 490

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization's IT risk environment?

Options:

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

Question 491

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

Question 492

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

Question 493

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 494

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key control indicator (KCI) to help an organization prevent successful cyber risk events on the external-facing infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Increasing number of threat actors

B.

Increasing number of intrusion detection system (IDS) false positive alerts

C.

Increasing percentage of unpatched demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers

D.

Increasing trend of perimeter attacks

Question 495

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

Question 496

WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

Options:

A.

Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B.

Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.

C.

Require training on the data handling policy.

D.

Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

Question 497

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

Question 498

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

Question 499

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important course of action after learning that an organization's industry peers have experienced an increase in ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional preventive controls to reduce residual risk.

B.

Document this scenario as a risk event for further risk analysis.

C.

Propose risk acceptance until the organization is directly affected.

D.

Raise a security incident to proactively prevent similar attacks.

Question 500

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

Question 501

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

Question 502

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 503

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

Options:

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

Question 504

Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing risk-related process documentation

B.

Conducting periodic risk assessments

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Performing frequent audits

Question 505

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

Options:

A.

Requiring two-factor authentication

B.

Conducting security awareness training

C.

Implementing phishing simulations

D.

Updating the information security policy

Question 506

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

Question 507

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

Question 508

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted when a global organization is required by law to implement a new data protection regulation across its operations?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership assignments

B.

Threat profile

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Risk profile

Question 509

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

Question 510

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 511

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

Question 512

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

Options:

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 513

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

Question 514

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

Options:

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

Question 515

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

Options:

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

Question 516

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

Question 517

Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?

Options:

A.

A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.

B.

Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.

C.

Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.

D.

A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.

Question 518

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

Options:

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

Question 519

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

Question 520

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

Question 521

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

Options:

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 522

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

Question 523

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

Question 524

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

Question 525

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

Options:

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

Question 526

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

Question 527

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

Options:

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

Question 528

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile''

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Risk metrics

Question 529

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

Options:

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.

Question 530

Which of the following is the MOST important metric to monitor the performance of the change management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes having separation of duties in code deployment

B.

Percentage of changes having completed post-implementation verification

C.

Percentage of changes having user acceptance testing (UAT) sign-off

D.

Percentage of changes having to invoke the rollback plan

Question 531

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

Question 532

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

Question 533

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

Question 534

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.

Question 535

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

Question 536

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

Question 537

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

Question 538

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

Question 539

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

Question 540

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

Question 541

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Question 542

Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine control ownership.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.

C.

evaluate the organization's ability to implement the solution.

D.

determine the remediation timeline.

Question 543

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

Options:

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

Question 544

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

Question 545

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

Question 546

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

Options:

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

Question 547

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

Question 548

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

Options:

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

Question 549

Which of the following is MOST commonly compared against the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

IT risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Financial risk

D.

Residual risk

Question 550

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

Question 551

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

Options:

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

Question 552

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

Question 553

An IT project risk was identified during a monthly steering committee meeting. Which of the following roles is BEST positioned to approve the risk mitigation response?

Options:

A.

Product owner

B.

IT manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Project coordinator

Question 554

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

Question 555

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?

Options:

A.

Number of active nodes

B.

Blockchain size in gigabytes

C.

Average transaction speed

D.

Number of validated transactions

Question 556

Which of the following would have the GREATEST impact on reducing the risk associated with the implementation of a big data project?

Options:

A.

Data processing

B.

Data quality

C.

Data scalability

D.

Data governance

Question 557

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

Question 558

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

Question 559

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

Question 560

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

Question 561

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

Options:

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

Question 562

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

Question 563

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 564

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

Options:

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

Question 565

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

Question 566

Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Implement control monitoring.

B.

Improve project management methodology.

C.

Reassess the risk periodically.

D.

Identify compensating controls.

Question 567

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

Options:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

Question 568

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Total 1895 questions