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Isaca CISM Certified Information Security Manager Exam Practice Test

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Total 801 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

Question 2

Which of the following is the MOST important input to the development of an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Risk and business impact assessments

B.

Business processes and requirements

C.

Current and desired state of security

D.

Well-defined security policies and procedures

Question 3

Which of the following would BEST mitigate accidental data loss events?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic user awareness training.

B.

Obtain senior management support for the information security strategy.

C.

Conduct a data loss prevention (DLP) audit.

D.

Enforce a data hard drive encryption policy.

Question 4

An organization has suffered from a large-scale security event impacting a critical system. Following the decision to restore the system at an alternate location, which plan should be invoked?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Communications plan

Question 5

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

Question 6

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

Question 7

Which of the following BEST enables an incident response team to determine appropriate actions during an initial investigation?

Options:

A.

Feedback from affected departments

B.

Historical data from past incidents

C.

Technical capabilities of the team

D.

Procedures for incident triage

Question 8

The PRIMARY goal to a post-incident review should be to:

Options:

A.

identify policy changes to prevent a recurrence.

B.

determine how to improve the incident handling process.

C.

establish the cost of the incident to the business.

D.

determine why the incident occurred.

Question 9

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

Question 10

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been contained

B.

After the incident has been mitigated

C.

After the incident has been confirmed

D.

After the potential incident has been logged

Question 11

What should be an information security manager's FIRST step when developing a business case for a new intrusion detection system (IDS) solution?

Options:

A.

Define the issues to be addressed.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Calculate the total cost of ownership (TCO).

D.

Conduct a feasibility study.

Question 12

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to convey information security responsibilities across an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing security awareness programs

B.

Documenting information security responsibilities within job descriptions

C.

Developing a skills matrix

D.

Defining information security responsibilities in the security policy

Question 13

The PRIMARY reason for creating a business case when proposing an information security project is to:

Options:

A.

articulate inherent risks.

B.

provide demonstrated return on investment (ROI).

C.

establish the value of the project in relation to business objectives.

D.

gain key business stakeholder engagement.

Question 14

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

Question 15

An organization is selecting security metrics to measure security performance, and a firewall specialist suggests tracking the number of external attacks blocked by the firewalls. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with using this metric?

Options:

A.

The number of blocked external attacks is not representative of the true threat profile.

B.

The number of blocked external attacks will vary by month, causing inconsistent graphs.

C.

The number of blocked external attacks is an indicator of the organization's popularity.

D.

The number of blocked external attacks over time does not explain the attackers' motivations.

Question 16

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

Question 17

An information security program is BEST positioned for success when it is closely aligned with:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

recognized industry frameworks.

C.

information security policies.

D.

the information security strategy.

Question 18

An incident response policy should include:

Options:

A.

A description of testing methodology.

B.

Notification requirements.

C.

An infrastructure diagram.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 19

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

Question 20

Which of the following tools provides an incident response team with the GREATEST insight into insider threat activity across multiple systems?

Options:

A.

A security information and event management (SIEM) system

B.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

A virtual private network (VPN) with multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) system

Question 21

An organization recently updated and published its information security policy and standards. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Communicate the changes to stakeholders.

C.

Update the organization's risk register.

D.

Develop a policy exception process.

Question 22

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of information security controls to senior management?

Options:

A.

Downtime due to malware infections

B.

Number of security vulnerabilities uncovered with network scans

C.

Percentage of servers patched

D.

Annualized loss resulting from security incidents

Question 23

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective strategic alignment of security initiatives?

Options:

A.

The business strategy is periodically updated

B.

Procedures and standards are approved by department heads.

C.

Periodic security audits are conducted by a third-party.

D.

Organizational units contribute to and agree on priorities

Question 24

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question 25

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

Question 26

Which of the following would provide the BEST input to a business case for a technical solution to address potential system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Vulnerability scan results

Question 27

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

Question 28

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

Question 29

Of the following, who is BEST suited to own the risk discovered in an application?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Senior management

C.

System owner

D.

Control owner

Question 30

During the selection of a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor for a business process, the vendor provides evidence of a globally accepted information security certification. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

The certification includes industry-recognized security controls.

B.

The certification was issued within the last five years.

C.

The certification is issued for the specific scope.

D.

The certification is easily verified.

Question 31

What should a global information security manager do FIRST when informed that a new regulation with significant impact will go into effect soon?

Options:

A.

Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

Question 32

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

Question 33

Of the following, who is MOST appropriate to own the risk associated with the failure of a privileged access control?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Business owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Compliance manager

Question 34

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 35

Which of the following elements of a service contract would BEST enable an organization to monitor the information security risk associated with a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Indemnification clause

B.

Breach detection and notification

C.

Compliance status reporting

D.

Physical access to service provider premises

Question 36

An organization has implemented a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should be responsible for enforcing authorized and controlled access to the CRM data?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data custodian

C.

Internal IT audit

D.

The data owner

Question 37

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

Question 38

Which of the following is BEST to include in a business case when the return on investment (ROI) for an information security initiative is difficult to calculate?

Options:

A.

Projected Increase in maturity level

B.

Estimated reduction in risk

C.

Projected costs over time

D.

Estimated increase in efficiency

Question 39

Which type of recovery site is MOST reliable and can support stringent recovery requirements?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Warm site

C.

Hot site

D.

Mobile site

Question 40

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

Options:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

Question 41

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain an appropriate security control environment?

Options:

A.

Alignment to an industry security framework

B.

Budgetary support for security

C.

Periodic employee security training

D.

Monitoring of the threat landscape

Question 42

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address the risk associated with a new third-party cloud application that will not meet organizational security requirements?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Consult with the business owner.

D.

Restrict application network access temporarily.

Question 43

Which of the following functions is MOST critical when initiating the removal of system access for terminated employees?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Information security

C.

Help desk

D.

Human resources (HR)

Question 44

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining control objectives?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

An information security framework

C.

Control recommendations from a recent audit

D.

The organization's risk appetite

Question 45

Which of the following BEST enables the restoration of operations after a limited ransomware incident occurs?

Options:

A.

Reliable image backups

B.

Impact assessment

C.

Documented eradication procedures

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 46

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A's information security manager?

Options:

A.

Company B's security policies

B.

The cost to align to Company A's security policies

C.

Company A's security architecture

D.

The organizational structure of Company B

Question 47

The PRIMARY goal of the eradication phase in an incident response process is to:

Options:

A.

maintain a strict chain of custody.

B.

provide effective triage and containment of the incident.

C.

remove the threat and restore affected systems

D.

obtain forensic evidence from the affected system.

Question 48

An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report only critical alerts.

B.

Change reporting thresholds.

C.

Reconfigure log recording.

D.

Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.

Question 49

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategies

C, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

Question 50

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

Question 51

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

Question 52

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

Question 53

An organization provides notebook PCs, cable wire locks, smartphone access, and virtual private network (VPN) access to its remote employees. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure?

Options:

A.

Employees use smartphone tethering when accessing from remote locations.

B.

Employees physically lock PCs when leaving the immediate area.

C.

Employees are trained on the acceptable use policy.

D.

Employees use the VPN when accessing the organization's online resources.

Question 54

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

Question 55

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain legally admissible evidence7

Options:

A.

Documented processes around forensic records retention

B.

Robust legal framework with notes of legal actions

C.

Chain of custody forms with points of contact

D.

Forensic personnel training that includes technical actions

Question 56

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Inventory and review current security policies.

D.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

Question 57

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine the alignment of an information security program with the business strategy?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the results of business continuity testing.

B.

Review key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Evaluate the business impact of incidents.

D.

Engage business process owners.

Question 58

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for executive management to be involved in establishing an enterprise's security management framework?

Options:

A.

To ensure industry best practices for enterprise security are followed

B.

To establish the minimum level of controls needed

C.

To determine the desired state of enterprise security

D.

To satisfy auditors' recommendations for enterprise security

Question 59

An enterprise has decided to procure security services from a third-party vendor to support its information security program. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the vendor selection criteria?

Options:

A.

Feedback from the vendor's previous clients

B.

Alignment of the vendor's business objectives with enterprise security goals

C.

The maturity of the vendor's internal control environment

D.

Penetration testing against the vendor's network

Question 60

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 61

An information security manager learns that business unit leaders are encouraging increased use of social media platforms to reach customers. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help mitigate the risk of confidential information being disclosed by employees on social media?

Options:

A.

Establish an organization-wide social media policy.

B.

Develop sanctions for misuse of social media sites.

C.

Monitor social media sites visited by employees.

D.

Restrict social media access on corporate devices.

Question 62

Which of the following should be updated FIRST to account for new regulatory requirements that impact current information security controls?

Options:

A.

Control matrix

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Risk register

D.

Information security policy

Question 63

A KEY consideration in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it:

Options:

A.

aligns with best practice for risk analysis of information assets.

B.

assigns numeric values to exposures of information assets.

C.

applies commonly used labels to information assets.

D.

is based on criticality analysis of information assets.

Question 64

An organization learns that a third party has outsourced critical functions to another external provider. Which of the following is the information security manager's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Engage an independent audit of the third party's external provider.

B.

Recommend canceling the contract with the third party.

C.

Evaluate the third party's agreements with its external provider.

D.

Conduct an external audit of the contracted third party.

Question 65

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

Question 66

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Integrate risk management into the vendor management process.

B.

Conduct security reviews on the services and solutions delivered.

C.

Review third-party contracts as part of the vendor management process.

D.

Perform an audit on vendors' security controls and practices.

Question 67

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

Question 68

Which is following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY focus during the development of a critical system storing highly confidential data?

Options:

A.

Reducing the number of vulnerabilities detected

B.

Ensuring the amount of residual risk is acceptable

C.

Avoiding identified system threats

D.

Complying with regulatory requirements

Question 69

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Review vulnerability assessment.

C.

Conduct a security audit.

D.

Isolate the system.

Question 70

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of an organization using Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) to help manage its disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

It offers the organization flexible deployment options using cloud infrastructure.

B.

It allows the organization to prioritize its core operations.

C.

It is more secure than traditional data backup architecture.

D.

It allows the use of a professional response team at a lower cost.

Question 71

A new information security manager finds that the organization tends to use short-term solutions to address problems. Resource allocation and spending are not effectively tracked, and there is no assurance that compliance requirements are being met. What should be done FIRST to reverse this bottom-up approach to security?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat analysis.

B.

Implement an information security awareness training program.

C.

Establish an audit committee.

D.

Create an information security steering committee.

Question 72

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

Options:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

Question 73

In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?

Options:

A.

Ownership of security

B.

Compliance with policies

C.

Auditability of systems

D.

Allocation of training resources

Question 74

Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a disruption?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 75

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

Question 76

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security incidents?

Options:

A.

Analyze recent security risk assessments.

B.

Analyze security anomalies.

C.

Analyze penetration test results.

D.

Analyze vulnerability assessments.

Question 77

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

Question 78

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the business continuity plan (BCP) is current?

Options:

A.

Manage business process changes.

B.

Update business impact analyses (BIAs) on a regular basis.

C.

Conduct periodic testing.

D.

Review and update emergency contact lists.

Question 79

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Review current recovery policies.

B.

Define the organizational strategy.

C.

Prioritize the critical processes.

D.

Review existing cyber insurance coverage.

Question 80

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

Question 81

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

Question 82

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that may disrupt the availability of a critical business application?

Options:

A.

A patch management process

B.

Version control

C.

Change management controls

D.

Logical access controls

Question 83

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

Question 84

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

Question 85

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

Question 86

Which of the following documents should contain the INITIAL prioritization of recovery of services?

Options:

A.

IT risk analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Business process map

Question 87

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 88

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

Question 89

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

Question 90

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

Question 91

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

Question 92

Which of the following backup methods requires the MOST time to restore data for an application?

Options:

A.

Full backup

B.

Incremental

C.

Differential

D.

Disk mirroring

Question 93

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

Question 94

Which of the following BEST demonstrates the added value of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security baselines

B.

A gap analysis

C.

A SWOT analysis

D.

A balanced scorecard

Question 95

An intrusion has been detected and contained. Which of the following steps represents the BEST practice for ensuring the integrity of the recovered system?

Options:

A.

Install the OS, patches, and application from the original source.

B.

Restore the OS, patches, and application from a backup.

C.

Restore the application and data from a forensic copy.

D.

Remove all signs of the intrusion from the OS and application.

Question 96

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

Question 97

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

Question 98

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

Question 99

Which of the following would BEST justify continued investment in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in residual risk

B.

Security framework alignment

C.

Speed of implementation

D.

Industry peer benchmarking

Question 100

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

Question 101

A penetration test was conducted by an accredited third party. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ensure a risk assessment is performed to evaluate the findings

B.

Ensure vulnerabilities found are resolved within acceptable timeframes

C.

Request funding needed to resolve the top vulnerabilities

D.

Report findings to senior management

Question 102

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

Question 103

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

Question 104

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

Question 105

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

Question 106

An employee has just reported the loss of a personal mobile device containing corporate information. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Disable remote

C.

Initiate a device reset.

D.

Conduct a risk assessment.

Question 107

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 108

An organization faces severe fines and penalties if not in compliance with local regulatory requirements by an established deadline. Senior management has asked the information security manager to prepare an action plan to achieve compliance.

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for planning purposes? »

Options:

A.

Results from a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Deadlines and penalties for noncompliance

C.

Results from a gap analysis

D.

An inventory of security controls currently in place

Question 109

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

Question 110

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

Question 111

Which of the following analyses will BEST identify the external influences to an organization's information security?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Gap analysis

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 112

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Determine recovery priorities.

B.

Define the recovery point objective (RPO).

C.

Confirm control effectiveness.

D.

Analyze vulnerabilities.

Question 113

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

Question 114

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

Question 115

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

Question 116

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

Question 117

Which of the following is the BEST justification for making a revision to a password policy?

Options:

A.

Industry best practice

B.

A risk assessment

C.

Audit recommendation

D.

Vendor recommendation

Question 118

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to provide ongoing assurance that legal and regulatory compliance requirements can be met?

Options:

A.

Embedding compliance requirements within operational processes

B.

Engaging external experts to provide guidance on changes in compliance requirements

C.

Performing periodic audits for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Assigning the operations manager accountability for meeting compliance requirements

Question 119

Which of the following events would MOST likely require a revision to the information security program?

Options:

A.

An increase in industry threat level .

B.

A significant increase in reported incidents

C.

A change in IT management

D.

A merger with another organization

Question 120

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

Question 121

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

Question 122

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

Question 123

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Likelihood of a disaster

C.

Organizational tolerance to service interruption

D.

Geographical location of the backup site

Question 124

To support effective risk decision making, which of the following is MOST important to have in place?

Options:

A.

Established risk domains

B.

Risk reporting procedures

C.

An audit committee consisting of mid-level management

D.

Well-defined and approved controls

Question 125

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

Question 126

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

Question 127

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

Question 128

An information security manager determines there are a significant number of exceptions to a newly released industry-required security standard. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document risk acceptances.

B.

Revise the organization's security policy.

C.

Assess the consequences of noncompliance.

D.

Conduct an information security audit.

Question 129

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

Question 130

When creating an incident response plan, the PRIMARY benefit of establishing a clear definition of a security incident is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

the incident response process to stakeholders

B.

adequately staff and train incident response teams.

C.

develop effective escalation and response procedures.

D.

make tabletop testing more effective.

Question 131

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

Question 132

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

Question 133

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

Question 134

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

Question 135

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for determining the value of assets?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the assets

B.

Business cost when assets are not available

C.

Original cost of the assets minus depreciation

D.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

Question 136

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the capability to restore clean data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Purchase cyber insurance

B.

Encrypt sensitive production data

C.

Perform Integrity checks on backups

D.

Maintain multiple offline backups

Question 137

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to transform its culture to support information security?

Options:

A.

Periodic compliance audits

B.

Strong management support

C.

Robust technical security controls

D.

Incentives for security incident reporting

Question 138

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

Question 139

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

Question 140

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

Question 141

An anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) operates by gathering data on:

Options:

A.

normal network behavior and using it as a baseline lor measuring abnormal activity

B.

abnormal network behavior and issuing instructions to the firewall to drop rogue connections

C.

abnormal network behavior and using it as a baseline for measuring normal activity

D.

attack pattern signatures from historical data

Question 142

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

Question 143

Which of the following is MOST important to convey to employees in building a security risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Personal information requires different security controls than sensitive information.

B.

Employee access should be based on the principle of least privilege.

C.

Understanding an information asset's value is critical to risk management.

D.

The responsibility for security rests with all employees.

Question 144

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

Question 145

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

Question 146

When developing a business case to justify an information security investment, which of the following would BEST enable an informed decision by senior management?

Options:

A.

The information security strategy

B.

Losses due to security incidents

C.

The results of a risk assessment

D.

Security investment trends in the industry

Question 147

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

Question 148

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

Question 149

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

Question 150

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor for information security program success?

Options:

A.

comprehensive risk assessment program for information security

B.

The information security manager's knowledge of the business

C.

Security staff with appropriate training and adequate resources

D.

Ongoing audits and addressing open items

Question 151

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

Question 152

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to ensure that incident response teams are properly prepared?

Options:

A.

Providing training from third-party forensics firms

B.

Obtaining industry certifications for the response team

C.

Conducting tabletop exercises appropriate for the organization

D.

Documenting multiple scenarios for the organization and response steps

Question 153

A financial company executive is concerned about recently increasing cyberattacks and needs to take action to reduce risk. The organization would BEST respond by:

Options:

A.

increasing budget and staffing levels for the incident response team.

B.

implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS).

C.

revalidating and mitigating risks to an acceptable level.

D.

testing the business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 154

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

Question 155

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

Options:

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

Question 156

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

Question 157

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

Question 158

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for obtaining input from risk owners when implementing controls?

Options:

A.

To reduce risk mitigation costs

B.

To resolve vulnerabilities in enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

To manage the risk to an acceptable level

D.

To eliminate threats impacting the business

Question 159

Labeling information according to its security classification:

Options:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

Question 160

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

Question 161

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

Question 162

Which of the following will result in the MOST accurate controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Mature change management processes

B.

Senior management support

C.

Well-defined security policies

D.

Unannounced testing

Question 163

Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

Options:

A.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B.

Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.

C.

Require the steering committee to review exception requests.

D.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

Question 164

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

Question 165

Due to changes in an organization's environment, security controls may no longer be adequate. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the previous risk assessment and countermeasures.

B.

Perform a new risk assessment,

C.

Evaluate countermeasures to mitigate new risks.

D.

Transfer the new risk to a third party.

Question 166

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

Question 167

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

Question 168

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining an organization's current capacity to mitigate risks?

Options:

A.

Capability maturity model

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

IT security risk and exposure

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 169

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

Question 170

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

Question 171

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 172

Which of the following parties should be responsible for determining access levels to an application that processes client information?

Options:

A.

The business client

B.

The information security tear

C.

The identity and access management team

D.

Business unit management

Question 173

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

Question 174

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

Question 175

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

Question 176

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing information security policies for an organization?

Options:

A.

Job descriptions include requirements to read security policies.

B.

The policies are updated annually.

C.

Senior management supports the policies.

D.

The policies are aligned to industry best practices.

Question 177

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

Question 178

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

Question 179

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

Question 180

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

Question 181

The PRIMARY benefit of introducing a single point of administration in network monitoring is that it:

Options:

A.

reduces unauthorized access to systems.

B.

promotes efficiency in control of the environment.

C.

prevents inconsistencies in information in the distributed environment.

D.

allows administrative staff to make management decisions.

Question 182

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

Question 183

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

Question 184

What is the BEST way to reduce the impact of a successful ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Perform frequent backups and store them offline.

B.

Purchase or renew cyber insurance policies.

C.

Include provisions to pay ransoms ih the information security budget.

D.

Monitor the network and provide alerts on intrusions.

Question 185

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

Question 186

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

Question 187

An information security manager developing an incident response plan MUST ensure it includes:

Options:

A.

an inventory of critical data.

B.

criteria for escalation.

C.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

critical infrastructure diagrams.

Question 188

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

Question 189

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

Question 190

Measuring which of the following is the MOST accurate way to determine the alignment of an information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Number of blocked intrusion attempts

B.

Number of business cases reviewed by senior management

C.

Trends in the number of identified threats to the business

D.

Percentage of controls integrated into business processes

Question 191

An incident management team is alerted to a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

B.

fallow the incident response plan

C.

notify the business process owner.

D.

fallow the business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 192

The MOST important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to:

Options:

A.

identify changes to the information security policy.

B.

ensure that changes are tested.

C.

ensure changes are properly documented.

D.

advise on change-related risk.

Question 193

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence on the successful adoption of an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Security policies

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Security management processes

D.

Organizational culture

Question 194

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization's ability to respond to a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Walk-through of the incident response plan

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Simulated phishing exercise

D.

Red team exercise

Question 195

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

Question 196

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

Question 197

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of the information security incident response process?

Options:

A.

Conducting incident triage

B.

Communicating with internal and external parties

C.

Minimizing negative impact to critical operations

D.

Classifying incidents

Question 198

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place as a basis for developing an effective information security program that supports the organization's business goals?

Options:

A.

Metrics to drive the information security program

B.

Information security policies

C.

A defined security organizational structure

D.

An information security strategy

Question 199

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

Question 200

How does an incident response team BEST leverage the results of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Assigning restoration priority during incidents

B.

Determining total cost of ownership (TCO)

C.

Evaluating vendors critical to business recovery

D.

Calculating residual risk after the incident recovery phase

Question 201

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

Question 202

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

Question 203

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

Question 204

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

Question 205

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

Question 206

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

Question 207

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

Question 208

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

Question 209

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 210

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

Question 211

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

Question 212

Which of the following BEST ensures information security governance is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

A security steering committee including IT representation

B.

A consistent risk management approach

C.

An information security risk register

D.

Integration of security reporting into corporate reporting

Question 213

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

Question 214

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

Question 215

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

Question 216

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

Question 217

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

Question 218

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Use quantitative risk assessment methods.

C.

Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management

D.

Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

Question 219

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

Question 220

Which of the following risk scenarios is MOST likely to emerge from a supply chain attack?

Options:

A.

Compromise of critical assets via third-party resources

B.

Unavailability of services provided by a supplier

C.

Loss of customers due to unavailability of products

D.

Unreliable delivery of hardware and software resources by a supplier

Question 221

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

Question 222

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

Question 223

Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Improved risk management

C.

Business agility

D.

A maturity model

Question 224

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

Question 225

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

Analyzing system memory

B.

Documenting analysis steps

C.

Capturing full system images

D.

Maintaining a chain of custody

Question 226

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

Question 227

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

Question 228

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

Question 229

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

Question 230

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

Question 231

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

Question 232

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Options:

A.

Increase the frequency of system backups.

B.

Review the mitigating security controls.

C.

Notify staff members of the threat.

D.

Assess the risk to the organization.

Question 233

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

Question 234

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

Question 235

An organization is increasingly using Software as a Service (SaaS) to replace in-house hosting and support of IT applications. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to help ensure procurement decisions consider information security concerns?

Options:

A.

Integrate information security risk assessments into the procurement process.

B.

Provide regular information security training to the procurement team.

C.

Invite IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice.

D.

Enforce the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors.

Question 236

An organization has acquired a company in a foreign country to gain an advantage in a new market. Which of the following is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine which country's information security regulations will be used.

B.

Merge the two existing information security programs.

C.

Apply the existing information security program to the acquired company.

D.

Evaluate the information security laws that apply to the acquired company.

Question 237

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for granting a security exception?

Options:

A.

The risk is justified by the cost to the business.

B.

The risk is justified by the benefit to security.

C.

The risk is justified by the cost to security.

D.

The risk is justified by the benefit to the business.

Question 238

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

Question 239

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

Question 240

An information security team has discovered that users are sharing a login account to an application with sensitive information, in violation of the access policy. Business management indicates that the practice creates operational efficiencies. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Enforce the policy.

B.

Modify the policy.

C.

Present the risk to senior management.

D.

Create an exception for the deviation.

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Total 801 questions