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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

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Total 272 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

Question 3

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Question 4

Question # 4

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 5

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Question 6

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

Question 7

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

Question 8

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Question 9

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 10

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

Question 11

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Options:

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

Question 12

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Question 13

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 14

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Question 15

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Question 16

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 17

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Question 18

Question # 18

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Question 19

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Question 20

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

Question 21

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 22

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

Question 23

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Question 24

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

Question 25

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

Question 26

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Question 27

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 28

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.

B.

Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

Question 29

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?

(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.

(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.

(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

Options:

A.

Status accounting of configuration items

B.

Auditing conformance to ISO9001

C.

Identification of test versions

D.

Record of changes to documentation over time

E.

Controlled library access

Question 31

Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Test Engineer

C.

Test Manager

D.

None of the above

Question 32

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

Options:

A.

0,1900,2004,2005

B.

1900, 2004

C.

1899,1900,2004,2005

D.

1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Question 33

Which pair of definitions is correct?

Options:

A.

Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software.

B.

Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; retesting enables developers to isolate the problem.

C.

Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; retesting runs new tests.

D.

Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.

Question 34

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

Options:

A.

Lack of technical documentation

B.

Lack of test tools on the market for developers

C.

Lack of training

D.

Lack of Objectivity

Question 35

What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Options:

A.

To identify how many tests to design.

B.

To identify when to start testing.

C.

To identify when to stop testing.

D.

To identify who will carry out the test execution.

Question 36

Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?

Options:

A.

Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures.

B.

Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible.

C.

Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing.

D.

Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected

Question 37

Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

Options:

A.

That you have tested every statement in the program

B.

That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program

C.

That you have tested every IF statement in the program

D.

That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Question 38

The cost of fixing a fault:

Options:

A.

Is not important

B.

Increases as we move the product towards live use

C.

Decreases as we move the product towards live use

D.

Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

E.

Can never be determined

Question 39

A test management tool is most likely to integrate with which of the following tools?

Options:

A.

Performance testing tool

B.

Test data preparation tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Requirements management tool

Question 40

How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?

Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

Options:

A.

2 Test Cases

B.

3 Test Cases

C.

4 Test Cases

D.

Not achievable

Question 41

Which of the following are most likely to be used when developing a test strategy or test approach?

(i) Failure-based approach

(ii)Test specification approach

(iii) Model-based approach

(iv)Finance-based approach

Options:

A.

(iii) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (i)

D.

(i) and (iii)

Question 42

Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

The system will enable users to buy books.

B.

The system will allow users to return books.

C.

The system will ensure security of the customer details.

D.

The system will allow up to 100 users to log in at the same time.

Question 43

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

Options:

A.

When the code is complete.

B.

When the design is complete.

C.

When the software requirements have been approved.

D.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Question 44

Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

Options:

A.

Variance from programming standards.

B.

A defect in middleware.

C.

Memory leaks.

D.

Regression defects.

Question 45

Which of the following is correct?

Debugging is:

Options:

A.

Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly.

B.

Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected.

C.

Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.

D.

Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.

Question 46

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.

c. Poor performance.

d. Unreachable code.

e. Business processes not followed.

Options:

A.

b, c and d are true; a and e are false

B.

a is true; b, c, d and e are false

C.

c, d and e are true; a and b are false

D.

a, b and d are true; c and e are false

Question 47

What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools find defects earlier in the life cycle.

B.

Static analysis tools can be used before code is written.

C.

Static analysis tools test that the delivered code meets business requirements.

D.

Static analysis tools are particularly effective for regression testing.

Question 48

Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?

Options:

A.

Test case

B.

Test procedure

C.

Test execution schedule

D.

Test condition

Question 49

What is important to do when working with software development models?

Options:

A.

To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.

B.

To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.

C.

To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.

D.

To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Question 50

Which is the best definition of complete testing..?

Options:

A.

You have discovered every bug in the program

B.

You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program

C.

You have reached the scheduled ship date

D.

You have completed every test in the test plan

Question 51

What is the main purpose of use case testing?

Options:

A.

To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

B.

To identify defects in the connections between components.

C.

To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

D.

To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

Question 52

What do you mean by “Having to say NO”..?

Options:

A.

No, the problem is not with testers

B.

No, the software is not ready for production

C.

Both a & b

D.

None of the above

Question 53

What do static analysis tools analyze?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Test cases

C.

Requirements

D.

Program code

Question 54

Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.

ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data

iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.

iv. Create the Test Specifications

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

B.

ii, iii, iv is true and i is false

C.

i is true and ii, iii, iv are false

D.

iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Question 55

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

Question 56

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

Question 57

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

Question 58

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 59

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 59

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Question 60

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 61

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Question 62

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Question 63

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

Question 64

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

Question 65

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Question 66

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

Question 67

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Question 68

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 69

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Question 70

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 70

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

Question 71

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Question 72

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

Question 73

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

Question 74

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 75

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Question 76

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Options:

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

Question 77

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Question 78

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 78

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

Question 79

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

Question 80

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

Question 81

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Total 272 questions