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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Exam Practice Test

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Total 482 questions

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

Question 2

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

Question 3

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

Question 4

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

Question 5

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 6

In which of following scenarios is the internal auditor performing benchmarking?

Options:

A.

The auditor compares information from one period with the same information from the poor period

B.

The auditor compares new information to his general knowledge of the organization

C.

The auditor compares information he collected with simmer information from another source

D.

The auditor compares expected outcomes with actual results

Question 7

Which of the following attribute sampling methods would be most appropriate to use to measure the total misstatement posted to an accounts payable ledger?

Options:

A.

Stop-or-go sampling

B.

Probability to proportional size sampling

C.

Classical variable sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true regarding the chief audit executive's (CAT$) responsibilities after completing an assurance or consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

The CAE must establish a follow-up process tor both assurance and consulting engagements to monitor that management actions have been effectively implemented to address observations

B.

The CAE must communicate the results of assurance and consulting engagements lo whoever can ensure that the results are given due consideration.

C.

The CAE must acknowledge satisfactory performance when communicating the results of assurance and consulting engagements

D.

The CAE may delegate the responsibility for communicating the results of consulting engagements although this responsibility cannot be delegated for assurance engagements

Question 9

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

Question 10

During a review of the organization's waste management processes, the internal auditor discovered that wastewater is being disposed of inappropriately. The auditor's recommendations, suggested to mitigate the risk of regulatory sanctions and reputational damages, were accepted and timelines for implementation were agreed. However, during the internal audit activity's periodic follow-up exercise, management indicated that the recommendation was too expensive to implement and the current disposal method has been cost-effective. What should the chief audit executive do in this case?

Options:

A.

Nothing, as the internal audit activity has fulfilled its responsibility of providing recommendations to mitigate the risks to which the organization is exposed.

B.

Contact the regulatory agency responsible for monitoring such matters in order to convince management to implement the recommendations.

C.

Convene a meeting with senior management and discuss the issue and the potential impact it may have on the organization.

D.

Highlight the current exposure to the external auditors so they too can highlight the issue and further pressure management to address the concern.

Question 11

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether company vehicles were being used for personal purposes She extracted a report that listed company vehicle numbers business units to which the vehicles are allocated travel dates, travel duration and mileage She then filtered the data for weekend dates Which of the following additional information would the auditor need?

Options:

A.

Names and work titles of employees

B.

Description of responsibilities of business units.

C.

Average fuel consumption data of vehicles

D.

Location and route data of vehicles

Question 12

Flowcharts are useful during audit planning because they contain information that may help internal auditors with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Understanding management's risk tolerance.

B.

Understanding business processes.

C.

Determining the size of the audit team needed to perform the review.

D.

Understanding organizational objectives.

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

Question 14

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

Question 15

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report's conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

Question 16

Which of the following is critical to the success of an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Present audit evidence and information to support the internal auditor’s line of questioning.

B.

Establish credibility, trust, and rapport.

C.

Develop flowcharts and review them with the interviewee.

D.

Observe the process and discuss it with the interviewee.

Question 17

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

Question 18

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

Question 19

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance

Question 20

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable pacts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor's theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume

C.

Compare the pans needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 21

In order to obtain background information on an assigned audit of data center operations an internal auditor administers control questionnaires to select individuals who have primary responsibilities within the process. Which of the following is a drawback of this approach?

Options:

A.

It will be difficult to quantify the information obtained through this approach

B.

This approach does not help the auditor learn about the existence of controls

C.

It takes the auditor a long time to assess the relevant controls using this approach

D.

Information on control functionality is limited

Question 22

An internal auditor is asked to review a recently completed renovation to a retail outlet. Which of the following would provide the most reliable evidence that the completed work conformed to the plan?

Options:

A.

An interview with the employee who performed the work

B.

An analysis of purchasing and receiving documentation

C.

Existence of a signed completion document accepting the work

D.

A physical inspection of the retail outlet.

Question 23

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

Question 24

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm's financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

Question 25

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

Question 26

Which of the following is the best option for the chief audit executive to consider for effective coordination of assurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Create an assurance map to illustrate each provider's level of assurance and planned activities for each area of the organization

B.

LIMIT© ricks inventory to identify the risks and controls in place and the relevant control owners.

C.

Rely on the risk and control and management testing information maintained for compliance with the regulatory framework

D.

Prepare a risk likelihood and impact heal map to prioritize assurance coverage coordination.

Question 27

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

Question 28

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 29

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Standards requirement for ret internal audit records?

Options:

A.

Retention requirements for internal audit records should be compliant with ones set for external audit records

B.

Retention requirements should take into account the medium in which internal audit records are stored

C.

Retention requirements should be set by the chief audit executive and aligned will the organization s process and procedures

D.

Retention requirements should set a minimum period of the for records storage and the process of archiving documents

Question 30

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 31

During follow-up. the internal auditor discovered that operational management did not implement effective actions to address a significant control breach If the issue is left unresolved it may result in regulatory sanctions and damage the organization's reputation What is the most appropriate next step for the chief audit executive to lake?

Options:

A.

Report the matter to the board

B.

Implement the recommended control to address the exposure

C.

Discuss the matter with senior management

D.

Ask the regulatory agency to persuade management to address the issue

Question 32

When addressing the excessive overtime being paid lo employees in an organization's customer service call center, which of the following would be most relevant for the internal auditor to use?

1 Confirmation.

2. Trend analysis.

3 External benchmarking

4. Internal benchmarking

Options:

A.

1.2 and 3

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

Question 33

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 34

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

Question 35

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 36

While planning for an accounts payable audit an internal auditor performs an entity level controls analysis. Which of the following statements is true regarding me approach used by the auditor?

Options:

A.

It enables the auditor to identify the inherent risks to the effective operation of accounts payable process controls.

B.

It enables the auditor to understand the framework of the activities and associated accounts payable subprocesses

C.

it enables the auditor to understand the accounts payable process and its flow, including key steps and systems.

D.

It enables the auditor to categorize the population of transactions within the accounts payable process

Question 37

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

Question 38

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 39

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

Question 40

If there is a significant error or omission in the final audit report that was communicated to management, which of the following is the key action for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Communicate the corrected information to the manager of the audited department.

B.

There should be a follow-up audit to address the error or omission.

C.

The auditor should update the scope of the audit to include the omission.

D.

The corrected communication should be redistributed to the original recipients.

Question 41

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

Question 42

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

Question 43

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be a primary objective for an internal auditor who is conducting an exit conference?

Options:

A.

Improve relations with the engagement clients.

B.

Present the final engagement communication.

C.

Identify concerns for future audit engagements.

D.

Ensure the accuracy of engagement conclusions.

Question 44

The chief audit executive was asked to define me internal audit activity s key performance indicators (KPIs) tor the upcoming year. The KPIs must measure efficiency and effectiveness. Which of the following is an example of a KPI that measures effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports are consistently submitted prior to the audit report deadline

B.

Post engagement surveys completed by management indicate a "meets or exceeds expectations" idling

C.

There is a significant reduction of travel costs per project over the next fiscal year

D.

Internal auditors identify a minimum number of issues and provide recommendations to address them for each audit

Question 45

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

Options:

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

Question 46

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

Question 47

An internal auditor discovered that a new employee was granted inappropriate access to the payroll system Apparently the IT specialist had made a mistake and granted access to the wrong new employee. Which of the following management actions would be most effective to prevent a similar issue from occurring again?

Options:

A.

Remove the new employee's excessive access rights and request that he report any future access error.

B.

Perform a complete review of all users who have access to the payroll system lo determine whether there are additional employees who were granted inappropriate access

C.

Review the system activity log of the employee to determine whether he used the inappropriate access to conduct any unauthorized activities in the payroll system

D.

Provide coaching to the IT specialist and introduce a secondary control to ensure system access is granted in accordance with the approved access request.

Question 48

An organization buys crude oil on the open market and refines it into a high-quality gasoline. The price of crude oil is extremely volatile. Which of the following is the most appropriate risk management technique to protect the organization against these price fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Enter into long-term gasoline purchase agreements with end customers.

B.

Trade crude oil derivatives at financial markets in order to benefit from price fluctuations

C.

Purchase crude oil-related derivatives such as futures or options

D.

Stock as much raw materials as possible and consider Investing into additional facilities

Question 49

An internal auditor has been asked to join a project team to help design controls in a software application to address specific risks that have been identified by the team Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a control assessment to ensure all application risks were appropriately identified

B.

Advise the project team on how to develop effective controls

C.

Direct the project team to implement the appropriate controls within the software application

D.

Provide assurance that the design of the controls will mitigate the identified application risks

Question 50

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

Question 51

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

Question 52

Acceding to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing is an assurance service commonly performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Proposing fine item recommendation lot the annual financial budget of the accounting department

B.

Making recommendations regarding financial approval authority limits for the operations department

C.

Validating whether employees are following established policies and procedures in the procurement department

D.

Generating expense report metrics for employees in the finance department

Question 53

An internal auditor is assessing the organization's risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A) Question # 53

B)Question # 53

C) Question # 53

D) Question # 53

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 54

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

Question 55

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

Question 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a valid principle for the internal audit activity to rely on the work of internal or external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Elements of evaluation

B.

Elements of organization

C.

Elements of practice

D.

Elements of confidentiality

Question 57

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

Question 58

When a significant finding is noted early during a review of the accounts payable function, which next course of action is best for communicating the issue?

Options:

A.

Intern accounting management via an interim memorandum update

B.

Note the item in the workpapers for inclusion in the final audit report

C.

Call a meeting and discuss me issue with the audit committee

D.

Alert the CEO as soon as the issue is discovered

Question 59

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 60

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

Options:

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

Question 61

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

Question 62

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 63

Which of the following methodologies consists of the internal auditor holding individual meetings with different people, asking them the same questions, and aggregating the results?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews.

D.

Elicitation.

Question 64

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

Question 65

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

Question 66

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

Question 67

Which of the following statements about internal audit's follow-up process is true?

Options:

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit's follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

Question 68

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would not be a consideration for the internal audit activity (IAA) when determining the need to follow-up on recommendations?

Options:

A.

Degree of effort and cost needed to correct the reported condition.

B.

Complexity of the corrective action.

C.

Impact that may result should the corrective action fail.

D.

Amount of resources required to conduct the follow-up activities.

Question 69

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 70

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client's expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

Question 71

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

Question 72

Which of the following is the primary reason an internal auditor would issue an interim report during an engagement?

Options:

A.

To provide a status update on a short engagement to management of the area under review and to the audit supervisor.

B.

To confirm agreement with preliminary observations and conclusions identified during the engagement.

C.

To provide those responsible for the area under review with the opportunity to act on certain observations immediately.

D.

To verify that the corrective actions required by senior management are completed as agreed.

Question 73

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

Question 74

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

Question 75

Prior to performing testing an internal auditor has determined that a primary process control failed due to design weakness. Which of the following actions should the auditor perform next?

Options:

A.

Determine whether there are any compensating controls in place to reduce the nsk to an acceptable level, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

B.

Test the control anyway to determine the likelihood that the control was not performed property, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

C.

Conclude that the process control environment is weak, issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

D.

Confer with a second internal auditor to determine whether the control failure is legitimate issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

Question 76

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

Question # 76

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

Options:

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

Question 77

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors' work?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

Question 78

Which of the following approaches to understanding business processes is conducted from a broad organizational perspective and has the greatest risk of overlooking processes that are ultimately critical?

Options:

A.

Process narrative.

B.

Process mapping.

C.

Bottom-up.

D.

Top-down.

Question 79

The engagement supervisor would like lo change the audit program's scope poor to beginning fieldwork According to IIA guidance before any change is implemented what is the most important action that should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Document in the engagement workpapers the rationale for changing the scope.

B.

Confirm that the scope change would align to the organization's objectives and goals

C.

Confirm that the internal audit activity continues to have the necessary knowledge and skills

D.

Seek approval from the chief audit executive for the proposed scope change

Question 80

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

Question 81

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE's responsibility at the meeting?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

Question 82

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

Question 83

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

Question 84

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management's explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 85

An internal auditor completed a consulting engagement covering a recent advertising campaign. The audit client asked the auditor to forward a copy of the report to one of the three advertising agencies used by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this request?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor may communicate the results to the advertising agency as instructed by the audit client, with approval from the chief audit executive.

B.

The internal auditor may not communicate the results to this external party regardless of the engagement client's instruction.

C.

The internal auditor may send the report and is required to include instructions for the advertising agency to limit further distribution and the use of results.

D.

The internal auditor may only communicate the results verbally to the advertising agency and should not provide a hard copy.

Question 86

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 87

An internal audit team was conducting an assurance engagement to review segregation of duties in the purchasing function. The internal auditors reviewed a sample of purchase orders from the past two year and discovered that 2 percent were signed by employees who were operating in a designated acting capacity due to employee absence. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes of information would most likely assist the auditor in deciding whether to report this finding?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Reliability

C.

Relevance

D.

Usefulness

Question 88

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

Question 89

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization's employee recruiting and retention policies

Question 90

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 91

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by, or in conjunction with, the engagement client.

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment.

Question 92

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 93

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

Question 94

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

Question 95

Which of the following risk assessment approaches involves gathering data from work team representing different levels of an organisation?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Management produced analysis 0

C.

Facilitated team workshops

D.

Weighted risk factors

Question 96

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

Question 97

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

Question 98

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

Question 99

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

Question 100

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 101

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

Question 102

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization's payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management's organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

Question 103

Options:

A.

Reviewing quality department survey results, which show 96% of employees believe all defective products are removed prior To shipping.

B.

Physically inspecting a sample of completed processing cycles for detective products prior to shipment.

C.

Observing employees while they raped products for defects

D.

Reviewing a quality report provided by management mat snows 13 products were identified and removed during me most recent processing cycle

Question 104

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 105

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

Question 106

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

Options:

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the audit

D, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

Question 107

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

Question 108

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

Question 109

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 110

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

Question 111

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

Question 112

An internal auditor conducted interviews with several employees, documented the interviews analyzed the summaries, and drew a number of conclusions. What sort of audit evidence has the internal auditor primarily obtained?

Options:

A.

Documentary evidence

B.

Testimonial evidence

C.

Analytical evidence

D.

Physical evidence

Question 113

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team's recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team's recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

Question 114

According to HA guidance, which of the following statements regarding audit workpapers is true?

Options:

A.

Audit reports should include the workpapers as a reference for the audit conclusions.

B.

The internal auditor's workpapers are the primary reference for reported control deficiencies.

C.

Ad-hoc communications with management of the area under review should be excluded from the workpapers.

D.

Both draft and final versions of workpapers should be saved at the end of the engagement

Question 115

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

Question 116

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

Question 117

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

Question 118

An organization's board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

Options:

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management's responsibility for risk management without board approval.

Question 119

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

Question 120

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

Question 121

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

Question 122

During an audit of the accounts receivable (AR) process, an internal auditor noted that reconciliations are still not performed regularly by the AR staff, a recommendation that was made following a previous audit. Monitoring by the financial reporting function has failed to detect the shortcoming. Both the financial reporting function and AR report to the controller, who is responsible for implementing action plans. Which of the following supports the internal auditor's decision to combine both observations into one reported finding?

Options:

A.

The observation was made during the same audit, and the action plan has a common owner.

B.

The observation relates to the same control activity within a common process.

C.

The observation has a common control, and it was noted in a prior audit.

D.

The observation has a common process, and the action plan for the observation has a common owner.

Question 123

An internal auditor receives a document displaying all the steps of a process and the path taken as transactions flow between each step of the process How is the internal auditor most likely to use This document during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To perform an assessment of the adequacy of process controls.

B.

To perform an assessment of the effectiveness of process controls

C.

To perform a detailed assessment of process risks

D.

To perform an assessment of the sufficiency of residual process risks.

Question 124

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 125

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

Question 126

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

Question 127

According to the MA guidance, which of the following does the engagement work program test in a review of an organizational process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives.

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls.

D.

Process scope

Question 128

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

Options:

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization's revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

Question 129

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

Question 130

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

Question 131

An internal audit activity is planning its first audit of IT shared services. Which of the following controls would typically be evaluated first?

Options:

A.

Entity-level controls

B.

Application controls

C.

General controls.

D.

Transaction controls

Question 132

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

Options:

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

Question 133

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company's process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

Question 134

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

Question 135

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process' support of the internal audit activity is true?

Options:

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

Question 136

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

Question 137

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding audit workpapers?

Options:

A.

Review notes on audit workpapers must be retained to provide a record of questions raised by the reviewer.

B.

Audit workpaper documentation policies are reviewed and approved by the audit committee.

C.

Management of the department being audited should review the prepared workpapers for accuracy.

D.

Audit workpaper preparation contributes to the professional development of the internal audit staff.

Question 138

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

Question 139

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 140

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

Question 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 142

An internal audit intends to create a risk and control matrix to better understand the organization's complex manufacturing process. With which of the following approaches would the auditor most likely start?

Options:

A.

Assess management responses to key risk exposures

B.

Analyze the costs and benefits of key controls

C.

Evaluate the design adequacy of known controls

D.

Conduct a walk-through of all related activates

Question 143

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

Question 144

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

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Total 482 questions