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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Internal Audit Engagement Exam Practice Test

Internal Audit Engagement Questions and Answers

Question 1

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

Question 2

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization ' s strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization ' s business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

Question 3

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

Question 4

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short-term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Current ratio

D.

Times interest earned

Question 5

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would not be a consideration for the internal audit activity (IAA) when determining the need to follow-up on recommendations?

Options:

A.

Degree of effort and cost needed to correct the reported condition.

B.

Complexity of the corrective action.

C.

Impact that may result should the corrective action fail.

D.

Amount of resources required to conduct the follow-up activities.

Question 6

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

Question 7

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team ' s recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team ' s recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

Question 8

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders ' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 9

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

Question 10

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

Question # 10

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

Options:

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

Question 11

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization ' s strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 12

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization ' s corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization ' s department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time

Question 13

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues ' workpapers for completeness and format.

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met.

Question 14

An organization ' s board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

Options:

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management ' s responsibility for risk management without board approval.

Question 15

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

Question 16

An internal auditor is starting the fieldwork of an assurance engagement. The auditor will conduct a walkthrough of selected controls with control owners. What should be the primary objective of this walkthrough?

Options:

A.

Collect the policies and procedures relevant to the audited area

B.

Understand the financial results published for the period under review

C.

Assess the design of the internal controls in place

D.

Define the objectives of the assurance engagement

Question 17

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 18

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity’s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 19

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 20

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee ' s reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

Question 21

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a charitable contribution from the organization. Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee ' s final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions.

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities.

Question 22

Which of the following statements best explains why an internal auditor should pay attention to retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

Retained earnings indicate the amount of potential dividends to be paid out to new investors.

B.

Retained earnings represent the amount of excess cash available in the organization.

C.

Retained earnings demonstrate that the organization was able to generate working capital from its own activities.

D.

Retained earnings constitute the main criterion used by ratings agencies to assess an organization.

Question 23

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by, or in conjunction with, the engagement client.

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment.

Question 25

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization ' s payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management ' s organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

Question 26

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

Options:

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

Question 27

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

Options:

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

Question 28

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client ' s expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

Question 29

Acceding to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing is an assurance service commonly performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Proposing fine item recommendation lot the annual financial budget of the accounting department

B.

Making recommendations regarding financial approval authority limits for the operations department

C.

Validating whether employees are following established policies and procedures in the procurement department

D.

Generating expense report metrics for employees in the finance department

Question 30

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an Important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction Based on this Information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

1.Effect of the control weakness.

2.Cause of the control weakness

3.Conclusion on the control weakness.

4.Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4

C.

1,3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 31

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

Question 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 33

An internal auditor examined a nostatistical sample of open accounts receivable balances and discovered that 10 out of 60 exceeded the approved unseated credit limit threshold defined by the organization ' s policy What should the auditor document in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Credit limit over drafts are not monitored in accordance with the organizations policy

B.

Seventeen percent of customers ' open balances in the sample exceed their approved unsecured credit rent

C.

The threshold for credit limits defined by the organization ' s policy is not adequate

D.

Management should perform monthly monitoring of open customer balances

Question 34

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 35

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 36

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

Question 37

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity ' s (IAA ' s) objectives?

Options:

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization ' s governance structure.

Question 38

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor ' s review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 39

In a small internal audit function, a single auditor is responsible for conducting the entire audit engagement. In this situation, what is the benefit of using a checklist as part of an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Allocation of tasks and responsibilities within the team.

B.

Facilitation of review by business representatives involved.

C.

Overview of results from previous audits.

D.

Retention of an audit trail regarding completion of tasks.

Question 40

Which of the following reasonably represents best practices regarding what should be the level of internal audit resource investment in monitoring and following up on engagement outcomes?

Options:

A.

Limited resources should be employed since the actual engagement is already completed and the onus of corrective actions rests with management

B.

No resources should be exclusively deployed for that at all rather it should be planned as part of future engagements in the same area

C.

Resources should only be provided towards this if doing so does not result in depletion of resources for new engagements planned in the current period

D.

Resources should be allocated to this without conditions as long as doing so meets the expectations of management and the judgment of the chief audit executive.

Question 41

During a review of the organization ' s waste management processes, the internal auditor discovered that wastewater is being disposed of inappropriately. The auditor ' s recommendations, suggested to mitigate the risk of regulatory sanctions and reputational damages, were accepted and timelines for implementation were agreed. However, during the internal audit activity ' s periodic follow-up exercise, management indicated that the recommendation was too expensive to implement and the current disposal method has been cost-effective. What should the chief audit executive do in this case?

Options:

A.

Nothing, as the internal audit activity has fulfilled its responsibility of providing recommendations to mitigate the risks to which the organization is exposed.

B.

Contact the regulatory agency responsible for monitoring such matters in order to convince management to implement the recommendations.

C.

Convene a meeting with senior management and discuss the issue and the potential impact it may have on the organization.

D.

Highlight the current exposure to the external auditors so they too can highlight the issue and further pressure management to address the concern.

Question 42

Which of the following recommendation types is most likely to propose the most long-term solutions?

Options:

A.

Condition-based recommendations

B.

Cause-based recommendations

C.

Effect-based recommendations

D.

Root cause-based recommendations

Question 43

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

Question 44

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

Question 45

An internal auditor of a construction organization found that completed inspection results, required by the organization ' s policy, were missing from the computer system. Which of the following, if included in the audit report, would demonstrate that the auditor performed a root cause analysis of this observation?

Options:

A.

Some inspection results were missing from the computer system.

B.

The results of lengthy inspections were more likely to be omitted from the computer system.

C.

Flaws in the computer system prevented employees from saving their inspection results.

D.

Employees did not ensure that inspection results were completed in the computer system.

Question 46

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 47

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization ' s policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ' performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, Internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 48

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

Question 49

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor ' s differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client ' s differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

Question 50

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

Question 51

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a chantable contribution from the organization Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee ' s final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities

Question 52

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

Question 53

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization ' s reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization ' s compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization ' s external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization ' s insurance department.

Question 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagements planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques

Question 55

The human resources (HR) department was last reviewed three years ago and is due for an assurance engagement after undergoing recent process changes. Which of the following would the most effective option identify the HR department ' s risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Meet with the chief operating officer 10 obtain Information about the MR department

B.

Review the previous internal audit report and locus on key audit observations and action plans

C.

Review the organization ' s risk strategy and risk appetite framework

D.

Discuss the department ' s present strategies ‘and objectives with the head of the HR department

Question 56

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

Question 57

A manufacturing organization specializes in the production of evaporated milk and breakfast cereals. The manufacturing processes create significant loss in the form of waste and byproducts. The provision for normal production loss is known to senior management, but little action is taken when abnormal production losses occur. The organization sells its production byproducts to fish farmers at a reduced price. The byproducts are a widely recognized and used product in the fish farming industry. The organization has a policy that also allows its employees to purchase the byproducts at a negligible price. Based on the above, which of the following risks should the internal audit function consider when planning an engagement of the production process?

Options:

A.

The production team may be incentivized to increase production losses.

B.

The production team may work overtime and be overworked.

C.

Increased misappropriation of finished products.

D.

Risk that the finished product quality may be impaired.

Question 58

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisor’s review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisor’s concerns have been addressed.

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisor ' s review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisor’s review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 59

During the filework phase of an assurance engagement the internal auditor decides that she wants to adjust the audit work program. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take9

Options:

A.

Request additional information needed from management of the area under review.

B.

Obtain approval from the engagement supervisor

C.

Obtain the required resources, including IT. to complete the work

D.

Discuss the change in scope with management of the area under review.

Question 60

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

Question 61

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 62

The audit plan of an internal audit function includes an assurance engagement of the organization’s cybersecurity protocols. However, the engagement supervisor assigned to execute the engagement identifies that the internal auditors with competencies in cybersecurity are scheduled for upcoming leave and are involved in other engagements. Those auditors would not be available to participate in the cybersecurity engagement. Which of the following would be the appropriate action for the engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Reassign the competent auditors immediately.

B.

Notify the board that the cybersecurity engagement cannot be performed due to a lack of competent resources.

C.

Suspend the cybersecurity engagement due to the lack of internal auditors with relevant competencies.

D.

Seek advice from the chief audit executive on appropriate actions related to the cybersecurity engagement.

Question 63

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of flowcharts as an audit tool?

Options:

A.

Flowcharts are typically not well suited to support information provided by a risk and control matrix.

B.

Flowcharts are preferred to narratives, as they can provide much greater detail on the design and operation of a process.

C.

Flowcharts are best applied to linear process flows but cannot address all risks related to the process.

D.

Flowcharts describe process steps but cannot provide the level of detail needed to adequately assess the design of the process.

Question 64

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 65

After completing an assurance engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the

organization. What is the most appropriate first step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Discuss the issue with senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue only with the CEO.

C.

Inform the board.

D.

Discuss the issue with the members of management responsible for the risk area.

Question 66

Which of the following is an example of internal benchmarking?

Options:

A.

Book value per common share ratio is lower than that of the prior year.

B.

Staff turnover ratio is higher than the comparable organization in the same industry.

C.

Utilities expense of the sales unit is higher than that of the customer service unit.

D.

Sales are significantly higher than the industry’s average for five years.

Question 67

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate ' s ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

Options:

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

Question 68

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 69

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

Question 70

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager ' s decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

Question 71

An engagement team is being assembled to audit of one of the organization ' s vendors Which of the following statements best applies to this scenario?

Options:

A.

The engagement team should include internal auditors who have expertise in investigating vendor fraud

B.

The engagement team should be composed of certified accountants who are proficient In financial statement analysis and local accounting principles

C.

To preserve independence and objectivity, an auditor who worked for the vendor two years prior may not participate on the engagement team

D.

The engagement team may include an auditor who lacks knowledge of the industry in which the vendor operates

Question 72

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement.

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement.

Question 73

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team ' s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization ' s IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 74

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

Question 75

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

Question 76

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

Options:

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

Question 77

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a small organization is developing a resource management plan Which of the following approaches would be most beneficial to help the CAE obtain details of the Internal audit activity ' s collective knowledge skills, and other competencies?

Options:

A.

Review or establish a documented skills assessment of the internal audit staff and gather information from post-audit surveys

B.

Obtain from the human resources department the job descriptions and position requirements for all internal audit staff

C.

Conduct an objective written test of the internal audit staff to assess their knowledge and skills related to core internal audit competencies

D.

Request the internal audit staff to submit a document that summarizes their most recent performance appraisals and post audit reviews

Question 78

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped free on board (FOB) destination to another organization.

B.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods received on consignment from another organization.

C.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point from another organization.

D.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods sent on consignment to another organization

Question 79

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor perform when reviewing cash disbursements to satisfy IIA guidance on due professional care?

Options:

A.

The calculated statistical sample size is 50 however the internal auditor believes errors exist so he decides to increase the sample size to 80

B.

The internal auditor traces serial numbers of computer equipment listed on an invoice to the fixed asset inventory

C.

The internal auditor reviews the accounts payable manager ' s petty cash fund and vouchers

D.

The internal auditor reviews the related invoice purchase order and receiving report for each sample selection

Question 80

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management ' s update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

Question 81

In which of the following situations would an internal auditor consider the need to outsource competencies and skills9

Options:

A.

During the inspection of a wind turbine. an internal auditor notices that some replaced parts took used According to purchase documents, the parts still have a long lifespan.

B.

The auditor believes that the audit client ' s actions contradict the organization ' s code of conduct The audit client disagrees and says his actions are for the organization ' s benefit

C.

An audit team member is allocated to conduct an assurance engagement m the sales unit. However, the same auditor performed an assurance engagement in that area just one year prior

D.

During an inventory count, the auditor ascertained that some goods were missing. The audit client argues that the auditor does not understand how inventory should be counted

Question 82

If there is a significant error or omission in the final audit report that was communicated to management, which of the following is the key action for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Communicate the corrected information to the manager of the audited department.

B.

There should be a follow-up audit to address the error or omission.

C.

The auditor should update the scope of the audit to include the omission.

D.

The corrected communication should be redistributed to the original recipients.

Question 83

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

Question 84

An internal audit engagement supervisor approved the engagement work program submitted by an internal auditor and concluded that it satisfied engagement objectives. At the end of the engagement, the engagement supervisor reviewed the completed work program and found numerous deficiencies and inconsistencies in the engagement workpapers. Which of the following should be improved in the process of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

The supervisor should regularly review the engagement team ' s workpapers throughout the engagement, including raising questions and providing guidance.

B.

The supervisor should evaluate whether the engagement work program includes audit procedures relevant to engagement objectives.

C.

The supervisor should thoroughly document all concerns prior to signing off the completed workpapers and finalizing the work program.

D.

The supervisor should issue a satisfaction questionnaire to management of the activity that was under review to understand the root causes of deficient performances.

Question 85

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

Options:

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

Question 86

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management ' s internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management ' s assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management ' s responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management ' s operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

Question 87

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization ' s general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

Question 88

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year. All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review. Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness.

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program.

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy.

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance.

Question 89

The engagement supervisor would like lo change the audit program ' s scope poor to beginning fieldwork According to IIA guidance before any change is implemented what is the most important action that should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Document in the engagement workpapers the rationale for changing the scope.

B.

Confirm that the scope change would align to the organization ' s objectives and goals

C.

Confirm that the internal audit activity continues to have the necessary knowledge and skills

D.

Seek approval from the chief audit executive for the proposed scope change

Question 90

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

Question 91

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports

1.Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2.Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting

3.Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously.

4.Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of. sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 92

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization ' s code of ethics to all employees

D.

Conduct an organization wide employee survey on ethical practices.

Question 93

An internal auditor completed a consulting engagement covering a recent advertising campaign. The audit client asked the auditor to forward a copy of the report to one of the three advertising agencies used by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this request?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor may communicate the results to the advertising agency as instructed by the audit client, with approval from the chief audit executive.

B.

The internal auditor may not communicate the results to this external party regardless of the engagement client ' s instruction.

C.

The internal auditor may send the report and is required to include instructions for the advertising agency to limit further distribution and the use of results.

D.

The internal auditor may only communicate the results verbally to the advertising agency and should not provide a hard copy.

Question 94

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management ' s compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization ' s servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization ' s privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

Question 95

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether company vehicles were being used for personal purposes She extracted a report that listed company vehicle numbers business units to which the vehicles are allocated travel dates, travel duration and mileage She then filtered the data for weekend dates Which of the following additional information would the auditor need?

Options:

A.

Names and work titles of employees

B.

Description of responsibilities of business units.

C.

Average fuel consumption data of vehicles

D.

Location and route data of vehicles

Question 96

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

Question 97

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

Question 98

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

Question 99

During a consulting engagement an internal auditor wants to determine whether all principal stakeholders are involved in a project. Which tool should the auditor use?

Options:

A.

RACI (responsible, accountable, consult and inform) chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

SWOT{strengths. weaknesses opportunities, and threats) analysis

D.

Workflow analysis

Question 100

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

Question 101

Which of the following data analysis techniques is used to identify inappropriately matching values, such as names, addresses, and account numbers in disparate systems?

Options:

A.

Stratification of numeric values

B.

Gap testing

C.

Joining different data sources

D.

Duplicate testing

Question 102

When auditing an organization ' s purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

Question 103

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner ' s approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

Question 104

Which of the following contributes to the reliability of information collected for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The information is gathered from a system where the controls are operating effectively

B.

The information is obtained directly from an experienced manager in writing

C.

The information is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

The information is useful to help the organization meet its goals

Question 105

Which of the following sources of testimonial evidence would be considered the most reliable regarding whether a process is effectively performed according to its design?

Options:

A.

The person responsible for performing the task

B.

Two or more people that work in the area

C.

The supervisor in charge of the process

D.

The manager that wrote the steps to be followed

Question 106

While conducting a review of the logistics department the internal audit team identified a crucial control weakness. The chief audit executive (CAE) decided to prepare an audit memorandum for management of the logistics department followed by an informal meeting What is the most likely reason the CAE decided to prepare the audit memorandum?

Options:

A.

To report up-to-date audit progress to management

B.

To ensure that the internal audit team and the CAE are aligned with regard to the identified weakness

C.

To allow management to address the identified weakness timely

D.

To obtain management ' s agreement with regard to the identified weakness

Question 107

In the years after the mid-service point of a depreciable asset, which of the following depreciation methods will result in the highest depreciation expense?

Options:

A.

Sum of the years’ digits.

B.

Declining balance.

C.

Double-declining balance.

D.

Straight line.

Question 108

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 109

Which phase of an audit engagement is typically the most effective time for an internal auditor to develop a risk and control matrix?

Options:

A.

When preparing to recap audit test results.

B.

At sample selection, to determine sampling methodology.

C.

At the start of fieldwork, as part of developing the annual audit plan.

D.

At planning, to assist in developing the engagement work program.

Question 110

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources. Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls.

C.

Detective key controls.

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 111

Operational management In the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap.

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 112

What is a control implication for an organization that adopts a flat structure?

Options:

A.

Mid-level employees are urged to innovate.

B.

Available time for supervision is limited.

C.

There are many hierarchical levels.

D.

The organizational structure is dispersed vertically.

Question 113

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

Question 114

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

Question 115

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

Question 116

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

Question 117

An organization ' s chief audit executive is developing an integrated audit approach to provide value-added services that can help the organization meet its strategic objectives and goals. Which of the following is an advantage of using an integrated audit approach that assists the organization?

Options:

A.

It allows the internal audit function to provide more subjective conclusions that would help the organization meet its goals and objectives.

B.

It allows the internal audit function to perform the appropriate engagements that minimize audit fatigue within the organization.

C.

It allows the internal audit function to focus more attention on ensuring that solutions and risks adhere to defined regulations.

D.

It allows the internal audit function to obtain more resources to perform more engagements of departments within the organization.

Question 118

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity ' s resources.

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement.

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required.

Question 119

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization ' s enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

Question 120

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 121

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 122

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

Question 123

In preparing the engagement work program, which of the following is generally true with respect to secondary controls?

Options:

A.

A separate engagement work program should be created for secondary controls

B.

Secondary controls do not necessarily need to be tested for effectiveness

C.

Any documented secondary controls are deemed essential to the adequacy of control design

D.

Secondary controls should be held to the same requirements as key controls

Question 124

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

Options:

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

Question 125

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

Question 126

If observed during fieldwork by an internal auditor, which of the following activities is least important to communicate formally to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Acts that may endanger the health or safety of individuals.

B.

Acts that favor one party to the detriment of another.

C.

Acts that damage or have an adverse effect on the environment.

D.

Acts that conceal inappropriate activities in the organization.

Question 127

An internal auditor wants to assess whether the organization ' s governing body was involved in strategic decisions for the use of social media. What could provide the most relevant evidence?

Options:

A.

The board ' s meeting minutes

B.

The executive committee’s social media budget report

C.

The organization’s marketing plan

D.

The organization’s procedures manual for daily social media management

Question 128

A toy manufacturer receives certain components from an overseas supplier and uses them to assemble final products Recently quality reviews have identified numerous issues regarding the components ' compliance with mandatory quality standards. Which type of engagement would be most appropriate to assess the root causes of the quality issues?

Options:

A.

A risk assessment

B.

An operational audit

C.

A third-party audit

D.

A fraud investigation

Question 129

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

Options:

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

Question 130

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity ' s findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

Options:

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

Question 131

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors ' work?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

Question 132

Which of the following risk assessment approaches involves gathering data from work team representing different levels of an organisation?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Management produced analysis 0

C.

Facilitated team workshops

D.

Weighted risk factors

Question 133

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 134

' Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

Question 135

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

D.

internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 136

Which of the following methods is most closely associated to year over year trends?

Options:

A.

Horizontal analysts

B.

Vertical analysis.

C.

Common-size analysis.

D.

Ratio analysis.

Question 137

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

Options:

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

Question 138

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

Question 139

Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Haphazard sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Probability-proportional-to-size sampling

Question 140

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

Question 141

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

Question 142

Which of the following is true of matrix organizations?

Options:

A.

A unity-of-command concept requires employees to report technically, functionally, and administratively to the same manager.

B.

A combination of product and functional departments allows management to utilize personnel from various functions.

C.

Authority, responsibility, and accountability of the units involved may vary based on the projects life, or the organization ' s culture.

D.

it is best suited for firms with scattered locations or for multi-line, large-scale firms.

Question 143

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization ' s employee recruiting and retention policies

Question 144

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

Question 145

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. " What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

Question 146

An internal auditor is performing an engagement to determine whether quality control checks of electronic gaming systems are performed consistently among a technology company’s factories. Which of the following tests would support the audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Obtain and review the organization’s policies and procedures to gain an understanding of the quality control checks performed on the gaming systems.

B.

Perform unannounced onsite observations at factories to help determine how employees perform quality control checks of the gaming systems in real time.

C.

Meet and discuss with the quality control supervisors at the facilities to obtain information about the processes related to the quality control of gaming systems.

D.

Use the organization’s manufacturing documentation to create a flowchart that shows how the gaming systems are built to meet the established quality control standards.

Question 147

In the following risk control map risks have been categorized based on the level of significance and the associated level of control. Which of the following statements is true regarding Risk C?

Question # 147

Options:

A.

The level of control is appropriate given the level of risk

B.

The level of control is excessive given the level of risk

C.

The level of control is inadequate given the level of risk

D.

There is not enough of information to determine whether the controls are appropriate or not

Question 148

When auditing an organization ' s cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier ' s supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

Question 149

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review

Question 150

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline ' s pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

Question 151

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) to propose interm changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following Is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval.

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval.

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

Question 152

During the review of an organization ' s retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

Question 153

Senior management decides to adopt a conservative working capital policy. What would be the expected result for the organization?

Options:

A.

Low levels of inventory

B.

Higher level of profitability

C.

High level of liquidity

D.

Higher level of risk

Question 154

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization ' s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs

Question 155

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department ' s staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity ' s increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization ' s recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 156

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

Question 157

Which of the following should be included in a company ' s year-end inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

Company goods that were sold during the year, free on board shipping point, that have been shipped but not yet received by the customer

B.

Goods purchased by the company, free on board destination, that have not yet been received.

C.

Goods on consignment, which the company is trying to sell for its customers.

D.

Company goods for sale on consignment at a consignment shop

Question 158

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

Question 159

Which of the following statistical sampling approaches is the most appropriate for testing a population for fraud?

Options:

A.

Discovery sampling.

B.

Stop-or-go sampling.

C.

Haphazard sampling.

D.

Stratified attribute sampling.

Question 160

The final engagement communication contains the following observation:

The internal auditor discovered that three of the 10 contracts reviewed failed to meet the organization ' s competitive bidding requirements Management explained that senior management deemed these purchases to be critical and awarded them as sole-source. "

Which of the following components is missing in the documentation of the observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria.

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

Question 161

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management ' s view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

Question 162

Which of the following is true regarding the communication of engagement results with stakeholders?

Options:

A.

When the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the organization, the CAE must discuss the matter with senior management. If the CAE determines that the matter has not been resolved, the CAE should seek the opinion from regulatory bodies.

B.

The CAE should avoid issuing any interim reports, even for high-risk observations, prior to the issuance of the final written report to avoid leakage of sensitive information.

C.

It is mandatory for the CAE to assess the potential risk to the organization, consult with senior management and legal counsel as appropriate, and control dissemination by restricting the use of the results prior to releasing them to parties outside of the organization if not otherwise mandated by legal, statutory, or regulatory requirements.

D.

The board should always be given the final written internal audit reports at the conclusion of all internal audit engagements. Executive summaries should be avoided in all cases.

Question 163

During the preliminary survey of the procurement department, an internal auditor noted a major control weakness in the organization ' s ordering and receiving process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the internal auditor should take?

Options:

A.

Issue a final report on the control weakness to senior management.

B.

Bring the control weakness to the attention of the process owner for resolution.

C.

Note the control weakness for discussion during the exit meeting.

D.

Carry out an investigation of the control weakness for disciplinary action.

Question 164

The internal audit function is performing an assurance engagement on the organization’s environmental, social, and governance (ESG) program. The engagement objective is to determine whether the ESG program’s activities are meeting the program’s established goals. The internal audit function has completed a risk and control assessment of the ESG program ' s activities. What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Conclude whether the ESG program ' s activities are meeting the established goals

B.

Communicate the results of the assessment to senior management

C.

Develop recommendations based on the results of the assessment

D.

Perform testing on the activities selected based on the assessment

Question 165

During an internal audit engagement, which of the following is true regarding the decision to use statistical sampling or nonstatistical sampling?

Options:

A.

The decision affects the test procedures performed.

B.

The auditor ' s response to errors detected will be influenced.

C.

The competence of the evidence obtained is greater with statistical sampling.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling may be more cost effective.

Question 166

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following Is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 167

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 168

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management ' s corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

Question 169

A chief audit executive ' s report to the board showed a significant trend of recent aud4s going over planned budgeted hours. Which of the following factors could cause this trend?

Options:

A.

Poor engagement supervision

B.

ineffective board reporting

C.

Untimely observation follows up and closure

D.

Limited staff resources

Question 170

Which of the following scenarios is an example of appropriate engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

An engagement supervisor provides equal supervision to junior auditors and senior auditors.

B.

An engagement supervisor uses internal audit software.

C.

The chief audit executive personally supervises each engagement.

D.

The engagement supervisor and a team member meet regularly to discuss engagement progress.

Question 171

An internal auditor suspects that a program contains unauthorized code or errors. Which of the following would assist the internal auditor in this regard?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Application software tracing and mapping

D.

Audit expert systems

Question 172

Which of the following technologies will best reduce human processing errors and enable seamless exchange of business transactions among business partners?

Options:

A.

Enterprise resource planning

B.

Material requirements planning

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Customer relationship management

Question 173

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor ' s inclusion of management ' s satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

Question 174

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

Question 175

A large retail organization, which sells most of its products online, experiences a computer hacking incident. The chief IT officer immediately investigates the incident and concludes that the attempt was not successful. The chief audit executive (CAE) learns of the attack in a casual conversation with an IT auditor. Which of the following actions should the CAE take?

1. Meet with the chief IT officer to discuss the report and control improvements that will be implemented as a result of the security breach, if any.

2. Immediately inform the chair of the audit committee of the security breach, because thus far only the chief IT officer is aware of the incident.

3. Meet with the IT auditor to develop an appropriate audit program to review the organization ' s Internet-based sales process and key controls.

4. Include the incident in the next quarterly report to the audit committee.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 176

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

Question 177

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 178

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs.

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals.

Question 179

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

Question 180

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management ' s responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 181

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls.

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses.

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement.

D.

To evaluate the design of controls.

Question 182

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management ' s explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 183

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address this risks highlighted by the Internal audit Which of the following Is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts managements explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 184

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

Question 185

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor ' s purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

Question 186

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 187

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

Options:

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the " communicate " phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

Question 188

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

Question 189

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

Question 190

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason the chief audit executive (CAE) should actively network and build relationships with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To fulfill the CAE ' s responsibility to keep the board appropriately informed.

B.

To expand the CAE ' s understanding of management issues.

C.

To help maintain the objectivity of the internal audit activity.

D.

To increase opportunities to demonstrate the internal audit activity performance.

Question 191

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

Question 192

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

Question 193

During a previous audit engagement, an internal auditor recommended that management implement a whistleblowing process. During follow-up, the auditor discovered that the process has been outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate response for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Insist on establishing an internal whistleblowing process, as originally recommended, because this is a key control.

B.

Review the agreement with the third-party service provider and ensure that appropriate controls are in place.

C.

Raise the issue to a higher level of management, as outsourcing the process was not previously discussed or agreed upon.

D.

Take no action, as management has accepted the risk of moving to a third party for this whistleblowing process.

Question 194

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor ' s use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

Question 195

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor most likely be questioned on?

Options:

A.

The auditor confirms the organization ' s ownership of physical equipment by verifying its presence on site visually.

B.

The auditor vouches for a sample of check copies to support voucher packages to test the checks ' validity.

C.

The auditor vouches a sales invoice to a shipping document to conclude that the invoice has been issued.

D.

The auditor recalculates the allowance for doubtful accounts based on management assertions.

Question 196

An electric utility provider measures working time spent on processing grid connection applications, response time for electricity outages, and the call center queuing time. Which of the following criteria would better suit a customer-oriented provider for measurement?

Options:

A.

Past performance

B.

Legal obligations

C.

Board-approved budget

D.

Stakeholder expectations

Question 197

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management ' s presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

Question 198

An internal auditor is testing the success of the IT support department in meeting the service levels guaranteed to small, medium and large customers. The customer ' s size classification is based on its annual expenditures with the organization and the nature and extent of services it receives. Which of the following sampling techniques would be the most suitable to select customers for this test?

Options:

A.

Interval sampling

B.

Cluster sampling

C.

Stop-and-go sampling

D.

Stratified sampling

Question 199

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

Question 200

The internal audit activity has adopted the balanced scorecard approach to assess its performance According to MA guidance which of the following is a key performance indicator relevant to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Percentage of recommendations implemented by corrective action date

B.

Staff experience

C.

Percentage of planned audits completed

D.

Conformance with the International Professional Practices Framework

Question 201

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

Question 202

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization ' s board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 203

The chief audit executive was asked to define me internal audit activity s key performance indicators (KPIs) tor the upcoming year. The KPIs must measure efficiency and effectiveness. Which of the following is an example of a KPI that measures effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports are consistently submitted prior to the audit report deadline

B.

Post engagement surveys completed by management indicate a " meets or exceeds expectations " idling

C.

There is a significant reduction of travel costs per project over the next fiscal year

D.

Internal auditors identify a minimum number of issues and provide recommendations to address them for each audit

Question 204

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

Question 205

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by. or in conjunction with, the engagement client

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment

Question 206

Which of the following best describes external benchmarking using trend analysis for a subsidiary of an international company?

Options:

A.

Comparing the current ratio of the subsidiary with the current ratio of another company for the same period

B.

Comparing common-size financial statements of the subsidiary with the averages of the industry for the last two periods

C.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the sales of another subsidiary for the last two periods.

D.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the budgeted figures for the last two periods

Question 207

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action Which of the following describes managements action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

Question 208

An internal auditor receives a document displaying all the steps of a process and the path taken as transactions flow between each step of the process How is the internal auditor most likely to use This document during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To perform an assessment of the adequacy of process controls.

B.

To perform an assessment of the effectiveness of process controls

C.

To perform a detailed assessment of process risks

D.

To perform an assessment of the sufficiency of residual process risks.

Question 209

During an audit of the accounts receivable (AR) process, an internal auditor noted that reconciliations are still not performed regularly by the AR staff, a recommendation that was made following a previous audit. Monitoring by the financial reporting function has failed to detect the shortcoming. Both the financial reporting function and AR report to the controller, who is responsible for implementing action plans. Which of the following supports the internal auditor ' s decision to combine both observations into one reported finding?

Options:

A.

The observation was made during the same audit, and the action plan has a common owner.

B.

The observation relates to the same control activity within a common process.

C.

The observation has a common control, and it was noted in a prior audit.

D.

The observation has a common process, and the action plan for the observation has a common owner.

Question 210

The chief audit executive (CAE) for a manufacturing company included in this year s audit plan a review of the company ' s laboratory, using an experienced external service provider. The audit plan was approved by the audit committee without any changes At the time of engaging the external service provider, the CAE also secured the approval from the CEO. Who is responsible for ensuring that the conclusions reached for this exercise are adequately supported7

Options:

A.

Audit committee

B.

CEO

C.

CAE.

D.

External service provider

Question 211

Which of the following processes does the board manage to ensure adequate governance?

Options:

A.

Establish and measure performance objectives for the internal audit activity

B.

Select board members with necessary knowledge and skills.

C.

Develop, approve, and execute the strategic plan of the organization

D.

Develop strategies to mitigate the risks to achieving the organization ' s objectives

Question 212

An internal audit intends to create a risk and control matrix to better understand the organization ' s complex manufacturing process. With which of the following approaches would the auditor most likely start?

Options:

A.

Assess management responses to key risk exposures

B.

Analyze the costs and benefits of key controls

C.

Evaluate the design adequacy of known controls

D.

Conduct a walk-through of all related activates

Question 213

An internal auditor believes that the internal audit activity ' s independence is impaired Which of the following actions should the internal auditor take first?

Options:

A.

Report the impairment to senior management

B.

Discuss the impairment with the audit manager.

C.

Ascertain the best approach to disclose the impairment.

D.

Decide on the extent of impact of the impairment

Question 214

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

Question 215

Which of the following measures immediate short-term liquidity?

Options:

A.

Current ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Quick ratio

D.

Times interest earned

Question 216

The chief audit executive can illustrate the value of the internal audit activity by reporting which of the following to the board?

Options:

A.

The overall performance resulting from the internal audit balanced scorecard

B.

The number of outstanding and overdue management actions

C.

The experience of the organization ' s internal auditors

D.

The number of audits in the annual audit plan relative to similar organizations

Question 217

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

Question 218

An audit reveals that a manager ' s spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

Question 219

During the planning process for a human resources audit, an internal auditor obtains an organizational chart. The auditor observes a flat organizational structure. Which of the below risks should the auditor consider for this engagement?

Options:

A.

Transactions and decision-making require multiple approvals, resulting in processing delays.

B.

Career and promotion paths are not easily visible and defined.

C.

Communication is likely to be top-down, with little feedback from lower-level employees.

D.

Employees have little autonomy, which may result in employee turnover or low morale.

Question 220

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the Internal audit activity^

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

Question 221

The board of directors expressed concerns about potential external risks that could impact the organization s ability to meet its annual objectives and goals The board requested consulting services from the internal audit activity to gain insight regarding the external risks Which of the following engagement objectives would be appropriate to fulfill this request?

Options:

A.

Assess the organization ' s ability to minimize potential external risks

B.

Assess the organization ' s process of vetting vendors that provide necessary services to the organization

C.

Assess the organization ' s risk impacts from the markets in which it operates

D.

Assess the organization ' s controls implemented that would help minimize risks

Question 222

An internal auditor is tasked with evaluating the adequacy of the organization ' s inventory fraud controls. What is the most relevant information that the auditor can obtain from the documentation of cyclic counting for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Accounting adjustments of inventories are approved by the management in accordance with a signature policy

B.

Root causes of inventory differences are analyzed and corrective measures are followed

C.

High value items are inventoried more frequently throughout the year

D.

Value of accounting adjustments matches with the value of inventory differences and are made in a timely manner

Question 223

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management ' s identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

Question 224

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization ' s vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

Options:

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.