IFSE Institute CIFC Canadian Investment Funds Course Exam Exam Practice Test

D is correct because a passive portfolio management strategy is based on the assumption that the markets are efficient and that it is impossible or very difficult to consistently find mis-priced securities that can generate abnormal returns. A passive portfolio manager aims to replicate the performance of a market index or benchmark by holding a diversified portfolio of securities that mirrors the index or benchmark. A passive portfolio manager does not believe in using active strategies such as market timing, security selection, or sector rotation. The manager does not need to use benchmarks (A), as they are essential for measuring and evaluating the performance of a passive portfolio. The manager does not wish to create capital gains in the mutual fund by frequently buying and selling stocks (B), as this would incur higher transaction costs and taxes, and deviate from the index or benchmark. The manager does not believe he or she can outperform the market with his or her stock picking skills ©, as this would imply an active portfolio management strategy. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

Whether the couple saves on income tax will be dependent on Minu’s marginal tax rate. Pension income splitting is a tax planning strategy that allows a spouse or common-law partner who receives eligible pension income to allocate up to 50% of that income to their spouse or common-law partner1. This may result in tax savings if the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner1. The tax savings depend on the difference between the marginal tax rates of the spouses or common-law partners1. The other statements are incorrect. Minu will not be exposed to a pension adjustment (PA) if she receives income from Saheed’s pension. A PA is a measure of the value of benefits accrued in a registered pension plan or deferred profit sharing plan during a calendar year2. It reduces the RRSP contribution room of the plan member, not the spouse or common-law partner who receives part of their pension income2. Pension income splitting is not a form of tax evasion and is not illegal based on income tax legislation. It is a legitimate way to reduce taxable income and taxes payable by shifting income from a higher-income spouse or common-law partner to a lower-income spouse or common-law partner1. Pension income splitting may change the total amount of income taxes paid by the couple, depending on their marginal tax rates. If the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner, pension income splitting may lower their combined taxes payable1. However, if they are in the same tax bracket, pension income splitting may not have any effect on their taxes payable1. References: Pension income splitting, Pension adjustment

A defined contribution pension plan (DCPP) is a type of retirement savings plan where the employer and/or employee make contributions to an individual account for the employee. The retirement benefits depend on the amount of contributions and the investment returns. Contributions to a DCPP reduce the employee’s available registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room, which is the maximum amount that can be contributed to an RRSP each year without tax penalties. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 9, Lesson 1

The client mobility exemption is a provision in the National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations that allows a registered individual to continue dealing with a client who moves to another jurisdiction without having to register in that jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. One of the conditions is that the individual must not have more than five clients in each of the other jurisdictions where they are not registered. Therefore, the client mobility exemption would apply to Lori’s situation, as she has five or fewer clients in Alberta, where she is not registered. The client mobility exemption would not apply to the other situations, as they do not meet the conditions for the exemption. For example, Olaf’s mutual fund dealer is not registered in New Brunswick, which is a requirement for the exemption. Sigrid’s brother-in-law is not an existing client who moved to another jurisdiction, but a new client who resides in a different jurisdiction. Karl has more than five clients in British Columbia, where he is not registered, which exceeds the limit for the exemption.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1

A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of mutual fund that invests in small and medium-sized businesses that are not publicly traded. LSIFs are sponsored by labour unions or associations and offer tax credits to investors. However, LSIFs are also very risky and illiquid investments that may not be suitable for investors with a medium risk profile, such as Banji. Therefore, Quinton should not proceed with the purchase of the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund because it is not suitable for Banji based on her current KYC. Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: Labour-Sponsored Investment Funds (LSIFs): Definition and How They Work - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

Global equity funds are a type of investment fund that invests in equity securities of companies from different countries around the world, including the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds aim to provide diversification and growth potential by taking advantage of the opportunities and risks in various markets and regions. Global equity funds may have different geographic, sectoral, or thematic focuses, depending on their investment objectives and strategies. Global equity funds are different from international equity funds, which invest only in countries outside of the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds are also different from regional or country-specific equity funds, which specialize in one or a few countries or regions. Global equity funds may have higher risk than domestic equity funds, as they are exposed to currency risk, foreign market risk, political risk, and regulatory risk.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund that invests both within and outside Canada. She also wants a fund that invests in quality companies, which implies that she prefers lower risk and higher stability. A global equity fund would meet her criteria, as it can invest in any country, including Canada, and diversify across different regions and markets. A global equity fund that focuses on large, established companies, also known as blue chip stocks, would also suit her preference for quality and stability, as these companies tend to have strong financial performance, competitive advantages, and consistent dividends. Therefore, the Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund would be the best choice for Loretta among the given options.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6, Section 6.2

To calculate the federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to consider the following steps:

• Convert the foreign dividend to Canadian dollars using the exchange rate. In this case, $882.02 USD x 1.3605 = $1,200.00 CAD.
• Gross up the eligible dividend by the enhanced dividend gross-up rate of 38%. In this case, $1,800 x 1.38 = $2,484.
• Add the grossed-up eligible dividend and the foreign dividend to get the total taxable income from dividends. In this case, $2,484 + $1,200 = $3,684.
• Multiply the total taxable income from dividends by the federal marginal tax rate of 29% to get the gross federal tax payable. In this case, $3,684 x 0.29 = $1,068.36.
• Multiply the grossed-up eligible dividend by the federal dividend tax credit rate of 15% to get the federal dividend tax credit. In this case, $2,484 x 0.15 = $372.60.
• Subtract the federal dividend tax credit from the gross federal tax payable to get the net federal tax liability. In this case, $1,068.36 - $372.60 = $695.76.

Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from his investment income is $695.76.

References: 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

A is correct because a stock exchange listing would provide Underground with greater market exposure and public confidence than listing on the OTC market. A stock exchange is a regulated and organized market where securities are traded through intermediaries such as brokers. A stock exchange listing can enhance the reputation, visibility, and liquidity of a company’s shares, as well as attract more investors and analysts. An OTC market is a decentralized and less regulated market where securities are traded directly between buyers and sellers, usually through dealers or market makers. An OTC listing may have lower costs and fewer requirements than a stock exchange listing, but it also has less transparency, liquidity, and investor protection. Underground would not be directly involved in the trading of their shares on either market (B), as they would only issue new shares through an IPO and then let the secondary market determine the price and volume of their shares. Underground would be subject to more stringent listing requirements if they chose the stock exchange as compared to the OTC market ©, as they would have to meet higher standards of financial reporting, disclosure, governance, and compliance. If Underground chose to list on the OTC market, there would still be a secondary market available for investors (D), but it would be less liquid and efficient than a stock exchange. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

 Moving the DEF Bond Fund to the RRSP would be more tax-efficient than moving any of the other funds. This is because bond funds generate interest income, which is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate in a non-registered account. By moving the bond fund to an RRSP, Darryl can defer paying taxes on the interest income until he withdraws it from the RRSP. Moving the GHI Global Equity Fund to the RRSP (B) would not be tax-efficient, as global equity funds generate foreign income and dividends, which are subject to foreign withholding taxes in an RRSP. Moving $20,000 from each of the three funds to the RRSP © would not be tax-efficient, as it would trigger capital gains taxes on all three funds in proportion to their returns. Moving the ABC Canadian Equity Fund to the RRSP (D) would not be tax-efficient, as Canadian equity funds generate Canadian dividends, which are eligible for a dividend tax credit in a non-registered account. By moving the Canadian equity fund to an RRSP, Darryl would lose this tax advantage and pay taxes on the dividends at his marginal tax rate when he withdraws them from the RRSP. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of a mutual fund is calculated by dividing the net asset value (NAV) of the fund by the number of outstanding units. The NAV is the difference between the total assets and total liabilities of the fund. Current assets and current liabilities are not relevant for the NAVPU calculation. Therefore, Great Lengths Equity Fund’s NAVPU is ($135 million - $10 million) / 11 million = $11.36. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 8, Lesson 1

A strategic asset allocation strategy is one that involves setting target allocations for various asset classes based on the investor’s risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives, and rebalancing the portfolio periodically to maintain the original allocations. This strategy is compatible with a buy-and-hold approach and aims to achieve long-term goals by diversifying across different asset classes and markets. In this case, you are implementing a strategic asset allocation strategy for your client Sierra by assigning 30% of her portfolio to fixed income and 70% to equities, and planning to rebalance her portfolio when the actual allocations deviate significantly from the target allocations.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7, Section 7.1

The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) is the price at which mutual fund units are bought and sold. The NAVPU is calculated at the end of each business day, based on the closing market value of the fund’s assets and liabilities. When an investor submits an order to buy or sell mutual fund units, the order is processed at the NAVPU of the next valuation date, which is the next business day after the order is received by the fund company. This is called forward pricing. In this case, Derek submits his order to sell 300 units of the Evergreen Canadian Mortgage Fund at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6. This is after the cut-off time for that day, which is usually 4:00 p.m. EST. Therefore, his order will be processed at the NAVPU of the next valuation date, which is Monday, January 9. However, since the Evergreen Canadian Mortgage Fund is a money market fund, it has a one-day settlement period, which means that Derek will receive his proceeds on the following business day after his order is processed. Therefore, his proceeds will be based on the NAVPU for Tuesday, January 10. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.4: Buying and Selling Mutual Funds, page 4-161
• Forward Pricing Definition - Investopedia2
• Money Market Fund Definition - Investopedia3

The Management Reports of Fund Performance (MRFP) are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFP are prepared by the fund manager and filed with the securities regulators twice a year, for the semi-annual and annual periods. The MRFP are also made available to the investors on the fund manager’s website or upon request. The MRFP include the following sections:

• Financial Highlights: This section summarizes the key financial data of the fund, such as net assets, net asset value per unit, total return, ratios and supplemental data.
• Past Performance: This section shows the historical returns of the fund over different time periods and compares them with a benchmark index or category average.
• Summary of Investment Portfolio: This section provides a breakdown of the fund’s portfolio by asset class, sector, geographic region, and top holdings. It also shows how the portfolio has changed over the reporting period.
• Management Discussion of Fund Performance: This section explains the fund’s investment objectives, strategies, and risks, and analyzes the factors that affected the fund’s performance during the reporting period. It also discloses the fund’s management expense ratio (MER), trading expense ratio (TER), and turnover rate.
• Financial Statements: This section presents the fund’s statement of financial position, statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in net assets attributable to holders of redeemable units, and statement of cash flows. It also includes notes to the financial statements that provide additional information and disclosures.

The MRFP would provide Beatrice with comprehensive information regarding the analysis of financial statements and fund management expenses as it relates to her current mutual fund investment.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

One of the steps in the Know Your Client (KYC) rule is to assess the client’s financial resources, which include their income, assets, liabilities, and net worth. Asking about pension plans at work is a relevant question to determine the client’s sources of income and potential retirement savings. Pension plans can also affect the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives, as they may provide a stable and guaranteed income in the future. Asking about children, money needs, and investment experience are also important questions, but they relate to other aspects of the KYC rule, such as personal circumstances, time horizon, and investment knowledge. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111
• Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia

Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle’s investment objective is “income”, which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri’s recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest
• IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1
• SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less in the future than it can today. Inflation also affects the returns of fixed income investments, such as bonds, which pay a fixed amount of interest and principal. If inflation is higher than expected, the real rate of return (the nominal rate minus inflation) of a bond will be lower than anticipated.

In this case, Pippa purchased a 15-year bond with a 7% coupon rate at the time of issuance. The bond is due to mature later this year. The general interest rate climate remained stable for the first 13 years of the bond’s term. However, especially over the past 18 months, both inflation and general interest rates have increased more than expected. This means that Pippa will receive less purchasing power from her bond’s interest and principal payments than she expected when she bought the bond. She will not experience a capital loss, as she will receive the full face value of $5,000 at maturity. She will also not benefit from a higher real rate of return, as inflation erodes the value of her fixed payments. She will not receive any capital appreciation, as the bond’s price does not change once it is held to maturity.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. The return of investment capital will have lower purchasing power than prior to investing.

References: 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 4: Fixed Income Securities)

In a mutual fund dealer, the chief compliance officer (CCO) is the person responsible for establishing and maintaining compliance policies and procedures as well as monitoring and assessing compliance by the dealer and its representatives. The CCO must report to the board of directors or senior management of the dealer and must meet certain proficiency requirements, such as passing the Mutual Fund Dealers Compliance Exam. The CCO is also accountable to the securities regulators and self-regulatory organizations for any compliance issues or breaches. References: Guide to Broker-Dealer Registration

Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments only upon formal confirmation from the regulator. Before he can start his activities as a dealing representative, he must complete the registration process, which includes passing the proficiency course, applying for registration through his dealer, and obtaining approval from the securities regulator in his jurisdiction. References: Guide to Broker-Dealer Registration

A is correct because retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to sell the shares back to the issuer at a predetermined price and within a specified time. This feature provides the holder with more flexibility and protection against interest rate fluctuations. Participating preferred shares (B) are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the right to receive additional dividends if the issuer’s earnings exceed a certain level. Convertible preferred shares © are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to convert the shares into common shares of the issuer at a predetermined ratio and price. Redeemable preferred shares (D) are a type of preferred shares that give the issuer the option to buy back the shares from the holder at a predetermined price and within a specified time. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

A conflict of interest is a situation where an individual or a firm has competing or incompatible interests that may affect their ability to act fairly, honestly, and in the best interest of their clients. A material conflict of interest is a conflict of interest that a reasonable person would expect to know about and that may influence the client’s decision to enter into or maintain a business relationship with the individual or the firm. According to the MFDA rules, Barend has an obligation to identify and address material conflicts of interest in a manner that prioritizes the client’s interest over his own or the firm’s interest1. If a material conflict of interest cannot be addressed in the best interest of the client, Barend must disclose it to the client before opening an account, providing advice, or executing a transaction. The disclosure must be clear, meaningful, and timely, and it must explain the nature and extent of the conflict of interest and how it could affect the client’s interests2. Barend must also obtain the client’s written consent to proceed with the account opening, advice, or transaction despite the conflict of interest. Barend must avoid material conflicts of interest that are prohibited by law or that would result in a breach of his fiduciary duty to the client. Barend must also report any material conflicts of interest to his firm and comply with the firm’s policies and procedures for managing conflicts of interest3. References:

• MFDA Rule 2.1.4 - Conflicts of Interest1
• MFDA Policy No. 2 - Minimum Standards for Account Supervision2
• MFDA Policy No. 9 - Disclosure of Conflicts of Interest (Outside Business Activities)3

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell a certain amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time frame. A put option increases in value as the price of the underlying security decreases, and vice versa. Therefore, buying a put option can be used as a hedging strategy to protect against downside risk or loss in the value of the underlying security. In this case, Maxine is using a put option to hedge against the potential drop in the market value of Never2Tacky due to the regulatory changes. If the price of Never2Tacky falls below $95, she can exercise the put option and sell her shares at $95, limiting her loss. If the price of Never2Tacky stays above $95, she can let the put option expire and keep her shares, paying only the premium for the option. Buying a put option is not speculating, as it does not involve taking a high-risk position in anticipation of a favorable outcome. It is also not related to modern portfolio theory or passive management, which are different concepts in investment analysis. References: Put Option: What It Is, How It Works, and How to Trade Them, Put Options: What They Are and How They Work, Put: What It Is and How It Works in Investing, With Examples

The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Money market funds are safe investments because their net asset value per unit does not usually fluctuate. Money market funds invest in highly liquid instruments like high-interest savings accounts, term deposits, short-term debt securities, cash equivalents, and other low-risk, short-term investments3. These funds aim to preserve capital and provide liquidity while generating some income3. Money market funds typically have a stable net asset value per unit (NAVPU) that does not change much over time3. The other statements are false. Money market funds do not provide high returns without risking the capital invested. Money market funds offer low returns that may not keep up with inflation or meet long-term investment goals3. Money market funds also have some risks, such as credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk3. Money market funds do not pay income weekly which can be automatically reinvested. Money market funds may pay income monthly, quarterly, semi-annually, or annually, depending on the fund’s distribution policy3. Investors can choose to receive cash distributions or reinvest them in more units of the fund3. Money market funds do not provide investors a guaranteed fixed rate of return. Money market funds do not guarantee any return or principal amount3. The return of money market funds depends on the interest rates and yields of the underlying investments, which may vary over time3. References: 7 Best Money Market ETFs in Canada 2023: Cash And HISA ETFs, Best Money Market Funds in Canada | WOWA.ca, 3 Best Canadian Money Market Funds (2023) - PiggyBank

Unused RRSP contribution room is the amount of RRSP contributions that you did not deduct in previous years and are available to deduct in the current year. Unused RRSP contribution room can be carried forward to future years indefinitely, until you use it up or reach the age of 71. You can find your unused RRSP contribution room on your notice of assessment or by logging into your Canada Revenue Agency account. References: What to do with unused RRSP, PRPP or SPP contributions

Commercial paper is a type of money market security that is issued by corporations and financial institutions to raise short-term funds. Commercial paper has a maturity of less than one year, typically between 30 and 90 days. Commercial paper is unsecured, meaning that it is not backed by any collateral or guarantee. Therefore, commercial paper has the highest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as it depends on the creditworthiness and liquidity of the issuer. If the issuer defaults or faces financial difficulties, the investor may lose part or all of their principal. Commercial paper also has a higher interest rate than other money market securities to compensate for the higher risk.

The other types of money market securities are:

• Bankers’ acceptances: These are negotiable instruments that are issued by a bank on behalf of a client who needs to finance international trade transactions. Bankers’ acceptances have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 180 days. Bankers’ acceptances are secured by the bank’s guarantee and the underlying goods or services that are being traded. Therefore, bankers’ acceptances have a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as they are backed by the bank’s creditworthiness and the value of the trade transaction.
• Treasury bills: These are short-term debt obligations that are issued by the federal government to finance its operations and programs. Treasury bills have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 3 and 12 months. Treasury bills are considered risk-free investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. Therefore, treasury bills have the lowest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as they have virtually no default risk or liquidity risk. Treasury bills also have the lowest interest rate among the four types of money market securities, as they reflect the risk-free rate of return.
• Municipal short-term paper: These are short-term debt instruments that are issued by municipalities or other local governments to finance their capital projects or operating expenses. Municipal short-term paper has a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 270 days. Municipal short-term paper is secured by the taxing power and revenue sources of the issuing municipality or government. Therefore, municipal short-term paper has a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as it is backed by the ability and willingness of the issuer to levy taxes and collect revenues.

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.1: Money Market Securities, page 5-21
• Money Market Definition - Investopedia2
• Commercial Paper Definition - Investopedia3
• Bankers’ Acceptance (BA) Definition - Investopedia4
• Treasury Bill (T-Bill) Definition - Investopedia
• Municipal Bond Definition - Investopedia

 If Ellen receives the National Child Benefit Supplement (NCBS), Jeff may be eligible for the Canada Learning Bond (CLB). The CLB is a grant of up to $2,000 that the Government of Canada deposits into a child’s RESP to help low-income families start saving for their child’s education2. The CLB does not require any contributions from the parents. To be eligible for the CLB, the child must have been born after December 31, 2003 and the family must receive the NCBS, which is part of the Canada Child Benefit3. The other statements are false. If Jeff qualifies for additional CESG, his CESG lifetime maximum increases to $7,200, not $10,000. If Jeff decides not to pursue a post-secondary education, he cannot keep the CESG; it must be returned to the government. George may open an RESP for Jeff and it will qualify to receive CESGs, as long as George is a resident of Canada and has a valid social insurance number. References: Unit 8: Retirement, Canada Learning Bond, [Canada Education Savings Grant], [RESP Withdrawals], [RESP Providers]

The purpose of holding money market instruments for non-money market mutual funds is to provide liquidity for the fund. If the portfolio manager has an immediate need for cash, such as to pay expenses or meet redemption requests, money market instruments are relatively easy to liquidate because they have short maturities and low credit risk. Money market instruments do not primarily generate investment income that provides investors with preferential tax treatment, as interest income from money market instruments is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate. Money market instruments are not purchased by non-money market funds to satisfy the regulatory requirement of fund diversification, as there is no such requirement for mutual funds. Money market instruments do not ensure that the fair market value of a mutual fund will not drop below a minimal market value, as money market instruments can also fluctuate in value depending on interest rate changes and supply and demand factors. References: Money Market Instruments

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, capital gains distributions are the portion of the mutual fund trust’s net realized capital gains that are paid out to the unitholders. Capital gains distributions are not the same as capital gains from selling or redeeming units of the mutual fund trust, which are reported on a T5008 slip. Capital gains distributions are taxable in the year they are received, even if they are reinvested in additional units of the fund. The mutual fund trust will issue a T3 slip to report the amount and type of income that is allocated to each unitholder, including capital gains distributions. The unitholder must report this income on their tax return and pay tax on 50% of the capital gains distributions at their marginal tax rate.

References: 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

The statement that is correct about Jehona’s permitted activities is option B. According to Section 13.3 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered individuals must not engage in discretionary trading, meaning that they must not execute a transaction for a client’s account without the specific authorization of the client before the transaction. Therefore, if Jehona wants to execute trades for Sokol’s account, Sokol must provide his specific authorization before the trades are entered. The other statements are not correct about Jehona’s permitted activities. Option A is false because a Limited Authorization Form does not allow Jehona to process trades in the account without Sokol’s pre-approval; rather, it allows Jehona to accept instructions from a third party authorized by Sokol, such as a spouse or a lawyer. Option C is false because Sokol cannot give Jehona discretionary trading authority, as it is prohibited by NI 31-103 for mutual fund dealers and their representatives. Option D is false because appointing Jehona as his Power of Attorney does not allow Jehona to execute trades without Sokol’s pre-approval; rather, it allows Jehona to act on behalf of Sokol in legal and financial matters, subject to certain conditions and limitations. References: [Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations], [Discretionary Trading | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Limited Authorization Form | IFIC], [Power of Attorney | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor are both income-tested benefits that are part of the Old Age Security (OAS) program. They are designed to provide financial assistance to low-income seniors who meet certain eligibility criteria. GIS is a monthly payment that supplements the OAS pension for seniors whose income is below a certain threshold. Allowance for the Survivor is a monthly payment for low-income seniors aged 60 to 64 whose spouse or common-law partner has died and who have not remarried or entered into another common-law relationship. The benefit amounts for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depend on the income level of the recipient and are adjusted quarterly based on the Consumer Price Index. The higher the income, the lower the benefit amount, until it reaches zero at a certain income limit. Therefore, eligibility for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depends on income level.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1

According to the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA), personal information is any factual or subjective information, recorded or not, about an identifiable individual. This includes information in any form, such as age, name, ID numbers, income, ethnic origin, or blood type. However, PIPEDA also specifies some exceptions to the definition of personal information, such as business contact information. Business contact information is any information that is used for the purpose of communicating or facilitating communication with an individual in relation to their employment, business or profession. This includes the employee’s name, position name or title, work address, work telephone number, work fax number or work electronic address. Therefore, an employee’s business address and business telephone number are not considered personal information under PIPEDA. An employee’s name could be considered personal information if it is not used for business purposes, but it is not clear from the question whether that is the case. An employee’s credit record is clearly personal information under PIPEDA, as it reveals sensitive information about the individual’s financial situation and history.

References: 1: PIPEDA in brief - Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada 2

The federal tax on eligible Canadian dividends is calculated as follows:

• First, the dividend amount is grossed up by 38%, which means multiplying it by 1.38. This is to account for the corporate tax that has already been paid by the company. Eleanora’s grossed-up dividend is $500 x 1.38 = $690.
• Second, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal marginal tax rate to get the gross federal tax. Eleanora’s gross federal tax is $690 x 0.29 = $200.10.
• Third, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal dividend tax credit rate to get the federal tax credit. This is to avoid double taxation of the dividend income. Eleanora’s federal tax credit is $690 x 0.1502 = $103.64.
• Fourth, the federal tax credit is subtracted from the gross federal tax to get the net federal tax. Eleanora’s net federal tax is $200.10 - $103.64 = $96.46.

Therefore, Eleanora will pay $96.46 in federal tax on her dividend. References: How Dividends Are Taxed and Reported on Tax Returns - Investopedia, Dividend Tax Credit in Canada - TurboTax

Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments only after he receives formal confirmation from the securities regulator that he is registered as a Dealing Representative. This is because registration is a legal requirement for anyone who trades securities or advises clients on securities in Canada, unless an exemption applies. Registration helps protect investors by ensuring that only qualified and competent individuals and firms can conduct securities related business. Jabir must also meet the proficiency, solvency, and suitability requirements for registration, as well as comply with the ongoing obligations of a registrant. Passing the proficiency course and being employed by the dealer are necessary but not sufficient conditions for registration. The dealer must apply for registration on behalf of Jabir and wait for the regulator’s approval.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 1, Section 1.2

According to the Registered Investments (RIs) - Canada.ca, you must inform the regulatory authorities of any material or significant changes to your personal circumstances, such as a change of name, address, or employment status. You must also report any disciplinary actions, criminal charges, or civil lawsuits that may affect your suitability as a registrant. Failing to do so may result in suspension or revocation of your registration.

Rakesh will not be subjected to a switch fee if it is outlined in the prospectus. A switch fee is a charge that may apply when an investor switches from one fund to another within the same fund family. The prospectus is the legal document that provides information about the fund, including its fees and charges. If the prospectus states that there is no switch fee or that there are certain conditions under which the switch fee is waived, then Rakesh will not have to pay a switch fee. The type of fund (no-load, low-load, or sales charge) does not determine whether there is a switch fee or not, as different fund families may have different policies regarding switch fees. References: Mutual Fund Fees, Prospectus

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell an underlying stock at a specified price (the strike price) within a specified time period (the expiration date). The seller of a put option is obligated to buy the stock if the buyer exercises the option. Patrick can purchase put options for the fund’s existing assets, which means he can lock in a minimum selling price for his stocks in case the market value drops below the strike price. This way, he can protect against potential losses and hedge his portfolio against market risk. References: What Is a Put Option and How to Use It With Example - Investopedia, How to Hedge With Stock Index Futures - Investopedia

The holding out rule is a regulatory requirement that prohibits registered individuals from using any title or designation other than their registration category when dealing with clients or potential clients. The purpose of this rule is to prevent misleading or confusing representations about the qualifications, roles, and responsibilities of registered individuals. According to Section 4.4 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), individuals who are registered to sell mutual funds must use the title “dealing representative” when holding out to clients or potential clients. Therefore, Ai Fen must prominently note “dealing representative” on her business card to comply with the holding out rule. The other options are not valid registration categories for selling mutual funds. Option B is a generic term that does not specify the type of securities that can be sold. Option C is a registration category for individuals who trade securities on behalf of an investment dealer. Option D is a professional designation that does not indicate registration status. References: [Holding Out Rule], [Registration Categories], [Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations]

Sabrina’s RRSP contribution room for Year 3 is $24,270. This is because the maximum contribution limit for Year 3 is $24,270 and Sabrina has always maximized her RRSP contributions, so she has no carry-forward room available.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans

An eligible dividend is a type of dividend that is paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria and is eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit. The dividend tax credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividends by providing a credit against the tax liability. An eligible dividend has a higher gross-up rate and a higher dividend tax credit rate than a non-eligible dividend, which means that it results in a lower effective tax rate. A capital dividend is a type of dividend that is paid from the capital gains realized by a corporation and is tax-free to the shareholder. However, a tactical asset allocation fund is unlikely to pay capital dividends, as they are usually reserved for private corporations. A capital gain is the profit from selling an asset at a higher price than its purchase price. Only 50% of the capital gain is taxable, which means that it has a lower effective tax rate than interest income, which is fully taxable. However, a capital gain distribution from a mutual fund is not the same as a capital gain from selling the mutual fund units. A capital gain distribution is paid when the fund realizes a capital gain from selling its underlying assets, and it is taxable in the year it is received, regardless of whether the shareholder sells the fund units or not. Therefore, it does not benefit from the deferral of tax that occurs when the shareholder sells the fund units at a later date. An interest distribution is paid when the fund earns interest income from its underlying assets, such as bonds or money market instruments. Interest income is fully taxable at the marginal tax rate, which means that it has the highest effective tax rate among the four types of distributions.

To compare the amount of tax payable for each type of distribution, we can use the following formula:

Tax=(Distribution×Gross−up)×MarginalTaxRate−(Distribution×Gross−up)×DividendTaxCreditRate

For simplicity, we assume that Davis receives $100 of each type of distribution and that he does not have any other income or deductions. We also ignore any provincial taxes or credits. Using the formula, we can calculate the tax payable for each type of distribution as follows:

• Capital Dividend: Tax=(100×0)×0.26−(100×0)×0=0
• Capital Gain: Tax=(100×0.5)×0.26−(100×0.5)×0=13
• Eligible Dividend: Tax=(100×1.38)×0.26−(100×1.38)×0.15=10.14
• Interest: Tax=(100×1)×0.26−(100×1)×0=26

Therefore, an eligible dividend would result in the lowest amount of tax payable, followed by a capital gain, a capital dividend, and an interest distribution.

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-41
• Eligible Dividends Definition - Investopedia2
• Capital Dividend Definition - Investopedia3
• Capital Gain Distribution Definition - Investopedia4

To convert the proceeds from USD to CAD, Frederic needs to divide the amount in USD by the exchange rate. The exchange rate is $1 CAD for $0.99 USD, which means that $0.99 USD is equivalent to $1 CAD. Therefore, Frederic will receive

CAD in Canadian dollars. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 8, Lesson 2

The “Client’s Interest First” standard requires that Dealing Representatives act in the best interest of their clients and place their clients’ interests before their own or their employer’s interests. This means that they must provide clear, accurate, and complete information to their clients about the mutual funds they recommend, including the costs and fees associated with them and how they affect the investment performance. Presenting a fund’s historical performance to anticipate its future return is misleading and does not serve the client’s interest. Using a risk-based approach to select a mutual fund is part of the suitability assessment, but it does not necessarily put the client’s interest first. Accurately documenting the KYC information is important for compliance purposes, but it does not ensure that the recommendation is in the client’s best interest.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

Disclosure documents are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s features, risks, performance, fees, and expenses to investors and regulators. Disclosure documents are required by securities laws and must be prepared and filed by the fund manager in accordance with the prescribed rules and standards. Disclosure documents relating to mutual funds include the following:

• Statement of net assets: This is a document that shows the value of the fund’s assets and liabilities as of a specific date. It also shows the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund, which is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. The statement of net assets is part of the fund’s financial statements, which are prepared and filed semi-annually and annually.
• Annual information form (AIF): This is a document that provides additional information about the fund that is not included in the simplified prospectus or the fund facts. The AIF includes information such as the fund’s history, organization, management, governance, policies, risks, conflicts of interest, fees, expenses, taxation, and legal matters. The AIF is prepared and filed annually.
• Management reports of fund performance (MRFP): These are documents that provide information about the fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFPs are prepared by the fund manager and filed semi-annually and annually. The MRFPs include sections such as financial highlights, past performance, summary of investment portfolio, management discussion of fund performance, and financial statements.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

 Retractable preferred shares are those that give the holder the option to sell them back to the issuer at a predetermined price and date. This is the case for Evan, who can sell his shares back to Ingram at par value any time from now until September 1st two years from now. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

 Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder a right to share in the issuer’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. This means that participating preferred shareholders may receive additional dividends if the issuer performs well. Iliana owns participating preferred shares in the First Canadian Bank, which means she has a right to share in the bank’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

The management expense ratio (MER) is the percentage of a fund’s assets that is paid to the fund manager for operating and managing the fund. A higher MER means that more of the fund’s returns are eaten up by fees, leaving less for the investors. Therefore, Fontaine Equity Fund’s higher MER of 2.99% contributes to its lower 5-year annualized return of 11.25%, compared to Chamberlain Equity Fund’s MER of 2.57% and 5-year annualized return of 13.42%. Therefore, D is the correct answer. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Management Expense Ratio (MER): Definition and How It Works - Investopedia

To calculate Peter’s net federal tax liability for the year, we need to follow these steps:

• Step 1: Calculate Peter’s taxable income. This is the amount of income that is subject to federal income tax. It is equal to his earned income from employment plus his net capital gain plus his grossed-up dividend income. A net capital gain is 50% of the capital gain realized from selling an asset. A grossed-up dividend income is the actual dividend received plus a percentage of the dividend that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer. According to the image, the dividend gross-up rate is 15.02%. Therefore, Peter’s taxable income is:

50000+0.5×15000+(500×2)×(1+0.1502)=68251.00

• Step 2: Apply the federal tax rates to Peter’s taxable income according to the tax brackets shown in the image. The federal tax rates are progressive, meaning that higher income is taxed at higher rates. Therefore, Peter’s federal tax before credits is:

0.15×(48535−0)+0.205×(68251−48535)=11293.69

• Step 3: Subtract the federal tax credits from Peter’s federal tax before credits. A tax credit is an amount that reduces the tax payable by a taxpayer. There are two types of federal tax credits: non-refundable and refundable. Non-refundable tax credits can only reduce the tax payable to zero, but not below zero. Refundable tax credits can reduce the tax payable below zero, resulting in a refund to the taxpayer. In this question, we assume that Peter only has two non-refundable tax credits: the basic personal amount and the dividend tax credit. The basic personal amount is a fixed amount that every taxpayer can claim to reduce their taxable income. According to this site, the basic personal amount for 2021 is $13,808. The dividend tax credit is a percentage of the grossed-up dividend income that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer and avoids double taxation. According to this site, the federal dividend tax credit rate for eligible dividends in 2021 is 15.0198%. Therefore, Peter’s federal tax credits are:

0.15×13808+0.150198×(500×2)×0.1502=2100

• Step 4: Subtract Peter’s federal tax credits from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability. This is the amount of federal income tax that Peter has to pay or has overpaid for the year. Therefore, Peter’s net federal tax liability is:

11293.69−2100=9193.69

Hence, option B is correct. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Federal Income Tax Rates for Canada - TurboTax Canada Tips, Capital Gains Tax in Canada | Wealthsimple, Dividend Tax Credit | TurboTax Canada Tips, Basic Personal Amount (BPA)

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

The current ratio is a liquidity ratio that measures a company’s ability to pay its short-term obligations with its current assets. A higher current ratio indicates that the company has more current assets than current liabilities, which means it can meet its short-term obligations more easily. A lower current ratio indicates that the company has less current assets than current liabilities, which means it may face liquidity problems or default risk. Therefore, the information given in the question indicates that Truesteel is better able to meet its short-term financial obligations than Strongco. The current ratio does not necessarily reflect the profitability, market outlook, or debt financing of the companies. References: Current Ratio Explained With Formula and Examples, Current Ratio Formula, Current ratio

According to the Canada Revenue Agency, taxable income is the amount used to calculate federal tax and provincial or territorial tax on the income tax return. Taxable income is calculated by subtracting tax deductions from total income. Total income is the sum of income from all sources, such as employment, business, investment, pension, and other income. Tax deductions are amounts that can be subtracted from total income to reduce the amount of income that is subject to tax. Some examples of tax deductions are RRSP contributions, child care expenses, moving expenses, and alimony payments. Tax credits are not subtracted from total income, but rather from the tax payable. Tax credits are amounts that can reduce the amount of tax owed or increase the amount of refund. Some examples of tax credits are basic personal amount, spouse or common-law partner amount, Canada workers benefit, and foreign tax credit.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. total income less tax deductions.

References: 1: Line 26000 – Taxable income - Canada.ca 2

The investment objective for the $10,000 currently sitting in Lucas’s RRSP is safety of principal, which means that he wants to preserve the value of his investment and avoid any loss of capital. Safety of principal is a suitable objective for Lucas because he plans to withdraw the money in two months for the LLP, which is a very short time horizon. He does not need to generate any income or growth from his investment, as he will use the money to pay for his education expenses. He also does not need to worry about tax-deferral, as the LLP allows him to withdraw money from his RRSP without paying any tax, as long as he meets the eligibility and repayment requirements1. Therefore, Lucas should invest his money in low-risk and liquid assets, such as money market securities or guaranteed investment certificates (GICs), that will protect his principal and ensure that he can access his funds when he needs them. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.4: Lifelong Learning Plan (LLP), page 6-132
• Lifelong Learning Plan (LLP) - Canada.ca1

Thomas must contribute to CPP based on his pensionable earnings, which are his income from employment or self-employment that are subject to CPP. However, he can deduct a basic exemption amount from his pensionable earnings, which is $3,500 for the year. Therefore, his contributory earnings are:

16,000−3,500=12,500

The CPP contribution rate is 5.95% for employees and self-employed workers. Therefore, Thomas must contribute:

12,500×5.95%=743.75

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.3: Canada Pension Plan (CPP), page 6-101
• Canada Pension Plan - How much could you receive - Canada.ca2