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HIPAA HIO-201 Certified HIPAA Professional Exam Practice Test

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Total 160 questions

Certified HIPAA Professional Questions and Answers

Question 1

A hospital is preparing a file of treatment information for the state of California. This file is to be sent to external medical researchers. The hospital has removed SSN, name, phone and other information that specifically identifies an individual. However, there may still be data in the file that potentially could identify the individual. Can the hospital claim "safe harbor" and release the file to the researchers?

Options:

A.

Yes - the hospital's actions satisfy the "safe harbor" method of de-identification.

B.

No - a person with appropriate knowledge and experience must determine that the information that remains can’t identify an individual.

C.

No - authorization to release the information is still required by HIPAA

D.

No - to satisfy "safe harbor" the hospital must also have no knowledge of a way to use the remaining data to identify an individual.

E.

Yes - medical researchers are covered entities and "research" is considered a part of "treatment" by HIPAA.

Question 2

A State insurance commissioner is requesting specific, individually identifiable information from an insurer as a part of a routine review of the insurer's practices. What must the insurer do to deidentify the information?

Options:

A.

The protected health information must be removed from the information. A substitute "key" may be supplied to allow re-identification, if needed.

B.

Limit the information to coverage, dates of treatment, and payment amounts to avoid collecting any protected data.

C.

Nothing. An oversight agency has the right to access this information without prior authorization.

D.

Request that the insurance commissioner ask for an exception from HIPAA from the Department of Health and Human Services.

E.

A written authorization is required from the patient.

Question 3

The Health Care Claim Status Response (277) can be used in a number of ways. Select the correct usage.

Options:

A.

As a response to a health care claim status request

B.

As a health care claim payment advice

C.

Electronic funds transfer

D.

As a request for health care claims status

E.

Request for the psychotherapy notes of a patient

Question 4

A grouping of functional groups, delimited by' a header/trailer pair, is called a:

Options:

A.

Data element

B.

Data segment

C.

Transaction set

D.

Functional envelope

E.

Interchange envelope

Question 5

Select the correct statement about the 820-Payment Order/Remittance advice transaction.

Options:

A.

It can be used for the payment of provider claims.

B.

It can be used to pay for insurance products (either individual or group premiums).

C.

It can function solely as a remittance advice.

D.

Electronic Funds Transfer is fully supported.

E.

This transaction can carry either summary or detailed remittance information.

Question 6

Select the phrase that makes the following statement FALSE. The 270 Health Care Eligibility Request can be used to inquire about:

Options:

A.

Eligibility status

B.

Benefit maximums

C.

Participating providers

D.

Deductibles & exclusions

E.

Co-pay amounts

Question 7

This security standard requires that the covered entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data:

Options:

A.

Security Incident Procedures

B.

Integrity

C.

Person or Entity Authentication

D.

Assigned Security Responsibility

E.

Business Associate Contracts and other Arrangements

Question 8

Individually identifiable health information (IIHI) includes information that is:

Options:

A.

Transmitted to a business associate for payment purposes only.

B.

Stored on a smart card only by the patient.

C.

Created or received by a credit company that provided a personal loan for surgical procedures.

D.

Created or received by a health care clearinghouse for claim processing.

E.

Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.

Question 9

A health care clearinghouse is an entity that:

Options:

A.

Requires PKI for the provider and the patient.

B.

Is exempt from HIPAA regulations.

C.

Is a not-for-profit operation.

D.

Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.

E.

Performs the functions of format translation and data conversion.

Question 10

Establishing policies and procedures for responding to an emergency or other occurrence that damages systems is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Security Awareness and Training

B.

Security Incident Procedure

C.

Information Access Management

D.

Security Management Process

E.

Contingency Plan

Question 11

The office manager of a small doctor's office wants to donate several of their older workstations to the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?

Options:

A.

Security Management Process

B.

Device and Media Controls

C.

Information Access Management

D.

Facility Access Controls

E.

Workstation Security

Question 12

The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:

Options:

A.

Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.

B.

Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law

C.

Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPAA.

D.

Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.

E.

Establishing a "floor" for privacy protection.

Question 13

This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time, retrievable copies of information:

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery Plan

B.

Data Backup Plan

C.

Facility Access Controls

D.

Security Incident Procedures

E.

Emergency Mode Operations Plan

Question 14

The transaction number assigned to the Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance transaction is:

Options:

A.

270

B.

276

C.

278

D.

280

E.

834

Question 15

HIPAA establishes a civil monetary penalty for violation of the Administrative Simplification provisions. The penalty may not be more than:

Options:

A.

$1,000,000 per person per violation of a single standard for a calendar year.

B.

$10 per person per violation of a single standard for a calendar year.

C.

$25,000 per person per violation of a single standard for a calendar year.

D.

$2,500 per person per violation of a single standard for a calendar year.

E.

$1000 per person per violation of a single standard for a calendar year.

Question 16

Select the FALSE statement regarding violations of the HIPAA Privacy rule.

Options:

A.

Covered entities that violate the standards or implementation specifications will be subjected to civil penalties of up to $100 per violation except that the total amount imposed on any one person in each calendar year may not exceed $25,000 for violations of one requirement

B.

Criminal penalties for non-compliance are fines up to $65,000 and one year in prison for each requirement or prohibition violated

C.

Criminal penalties for willful violation are fines up to $50,000 and one year in prison for each requirement or prohibition violated.

D.

Criminal penalties for violations committed under “false pretenses” are fines up to $100,000 and five years in prison for each requirement or prohibition violated

E.

Criminal penalties for violations committed with the intent to sell, transfer, or use PHI for commercial advantage, personal gain or malicious harm are fines up to $250,000 and ten years in prison for each requirement or prohibition violated

Question 17

The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and procedures to ensure the:

Options:

A.

Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.

B.

Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.

C.

Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.

D.

Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.

E.

Non-repudiation of the entity.

Question 18

A doctor is sending a patient's lab work to a lab that is an external business partner. The lab and the doctor's staff are all trained on the doctor's Privacy Practices. The doctor has a signed Notice from the patient. In order to use or disclose PHI, the lab MUST:

Options:

A.

Request that the patient sign the lab's Notice of Privacy Practices.

B.

Do nothing more - the activity is covered by the doctor's Notice of Privacy Practices.

C.

Obtain a specific authorization from the patient

D.

Obtain a specific authorization from the doctor.

E.

Verify that the doctor's Notice of Privacy Practices has not expired.

Question 19

Select the FALSE statement regarding the responsibilities of providers with direct treatment relationships under HIPAA's privacy rule.

Options:

A.

Provide the individual with a Notice of Privacy Practices that describes the use of PHI.

B.

Obtain a written authorization for each and every TPO event.

C.

Obtain a written authorization for any disclosure or use of PHI other than for the purposes of TPO.

D.

Provide access to the PHI that it maintains to the individual and make reasonable efforts to correct possible errors when requested by the individual.

E.

Establish procedures to receive complaints relating to the handling of PHI.

Question 20

This Administrative Safeguard standard implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of its workforce have appropriate access to electronic information.

Options:

A.

Security Awareness Training

B.

Workforce Security

C.

Facility Access Controls

D.

Workstation Use

E.

Workstation Security

Question 21

The Final Privacy Rule requires a covered entity to obtain an individual's prior written authorization to use his or her PHI for marketing purposes except for:

Options:

A.

Situations where the marketing is for a drug or treatment could improve the health of that individual.

B.

Situations where the patient has already signed the covered entity's Notice of Privacy Practices.

C.

A face-to-face encounter with the sales person of a company that provides drug samples

D.

A communication involving a promotional gift of nominal value.

E.

The situation where the patient has signed the Notice of Privacy Practices of the marketer.

Question 22

A provider is in compliance with the Privacy Rule. She has a signed Notice of Privacy Practices from her patient. To provide treatment, the doctor needs to consult with an independent provider who has no relationship with the patient. To comply with the Privacy Rule the doctor MUST:

Options:

A.

Establish a business partner relationship with the other provider.

B.

Obtain a signed authorization from the patient to cover the disclosure.

C.

Make a copy of the signed Notice available to the other provider.

D.

Obtain the patients signature on the second provider's Notice of Privacy Practices.

E.

Do nothing more -the Notice of Privacy Practices covers treatment activities.

Question 23

Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:

Options:

A.

PKI requirements for hospitals and health care providers.

B.

Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.

C.

Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.

D.

Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change employers.

E.

The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding HIPAA requirements?

Options:

A.

A coveted entity must change its policies and procedures to complywith HIPPPregulations, standards, and implementation specifications.

B.

A covered entity must reasonably safeguard PHI from any intentional or unintentional use or disclosure that is in violation of the regulations.

C.

A covered entity must provide a process for individuals to make complaints concerning privacy issues.

D.

A covered entity must document all complaints received regarding privacy issues.

E.

The Privacy Rule requires that the covered entity has a documented security policy.

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Total 160 questions