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EMC D-ISM-FN-23 Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 189 questions

Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which type of interface connects SSD drives to the storage array controller?

Options:

A.

NVMe

B.

NVMe/IB

C.

NVMe-oF

D.

NVMe/TCP

Question 2

What is an advantage of performing incremental backups compared to cumulative backups for the same data?

Options:

A.

Requires more time to perform data backup

B.

Storage capacity needed for backups is significantly reduced

C.

Requires more storage capacity for backup

D.

Reduces restore time but requires a maximum of two copies

Question 3

The Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 4 occurs as follows:

Monday = 8 PM to 11 PM -

Wednesday = 7 PM to 10 PM -

Thursday = 6 AM to 12 PM -

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

Options:

A.

28 hours

B.

2 hours

C.

38 hours

D.

4 hours

Question 4

A company finance department needs 250 GB of storage for their business applications. A LUN is created with 250 GB, and RAID 1 protection. The LUN is configured to support application I/O performance.

If storage cost is $2 per GB, what is the chargeback amount to the department for application storage?

Options:

A.

$1000

B.

$ 2000

C.

$500

D.

$250

Question 5

What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Options:

A.

One object can be placed inside another object

B.

Objects are created based on the name and location of the file

C.

Objects exist at the same level in the address space

D.

Numerous objects can be stored in a single namespace

Question 6

Which intelligent storage system component performs replication and storage management functions?

Options:

A.

Solid state drive

B.

Controller

C.

Storage class memory

D.

Front-end ports

Question 7

Which file system provides a streaming interface using the MapReduce framework?

Options:

A.

CIFS

B.

HDFS

C.

NFS

D.

NTFS

Question 8

Which Dell EMC product is designed to host both file and object data?

Options:

A.

PowerEdge

B.

PowerScale

C.

PowerVault

D.

Cloud Tiering Appliance

Question 9

In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

NFS

C.

CIFS

D.

REST

Question 10

Which components should be used for interconnecting hosts to storage systems in FC SANs?

Options:

A.

FC directors

FC hubs

FC FL_Ports

B.

FC switches

FC directos

FC E_Ports

C.

FC switches

FC hubs

FC N_Ports

D.

FC switches

FC directors

FC FE_Ports

Question 11

Which network file sharing protocol provides cloud-based file sharing through a REST API interface?

Options:

A.

S3

B.

HDFS

C.

ZFS

D.

FTP

Question 12

Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and automates a data center’s physical storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

XtremIO

B.

ViPR Controller

C.

VxFlex OS

D.

PowerMax

Question 13

Which Connectrix FC switch model supports NVMe in a 32Gb/s SAN fabric exclusively?

Options:

A.

DS-6600B

B.

MDS 9148S

C.

DS-6505B

D.

MDS-9132T

Question 14

What type of technology is used in SSD devices to provide non-volatile data storage?

Options:

A.

Static RAM

B.

Dynamic RAM memory

C.

Flash memory

D.

Programmable read-only memory

Question 15

What kind of ML explicitly requires splitting the data into training and testing datasets before running an algorithm against that data?

Options:

A.

Deep Learning

B.

Unsupervised Learning

C.

Reinforcement Learning

D.

Supervised Learning

Question 16

What is a key function of the orchestration layer in a modern data center architecture?

Options:

A.

Provides a unified view to manage the resources across the data centers

B.

Enables automatic updates of offerings listed in the service catalog with pre-defined workflows

C.

Allows automated arrangement, coordination, and management of resource provisioning

D.

Interacts directly with physical components across layers to begin provisioning

Question 17

Which FCIP protocol stack layer supports FC frame encapsulation?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

TCP

C.

FCP

D.

IP

Question 18

What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be supported with one VLAN tag field?

Options:

A.

4096

B.

8192

C.

1024

D.

2048

Question 19

What is a function of VM hardening?

Options:

A.

Isolate VM storage media to ensure data validity

B.

Isolate VM storage media to prevent data leaks

C.

Change the default configuration of the VM to enhance security

D.

Implement access control list across the VMs to enhance security

Question 20

Under the PaaS model, which elements are managed by the consumer?

Options:

A.

Applications and Data

B.

OS and Runtime

C.

Middleware and Networking

D.

OS and Virtualization

Question 21

Which modern technology enables data to be securely collected and processed at point of creation to create new value?

Options:

A.

Private cloud

B.

Edge Computing

C.

Big Data

D.

AI/ML

Question 22

Which VMware product has pre-defined workflows that helps to automate and coordinate the service delivery and operational functions in a storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

NSX

B.

vSphere ESXi

C.

vRealize Orchestrator

D.

Horizon

Question 23

What is true about Storage Class Memory (SCM)?

Options:

A.

SCM is slower than DRAM but read and write speeds are faster than flash.

B.

SCM adds a new tier of SAS performance at memory-like cost.

C.

SCM read and write speeds are slower than hard disk drives.

D.

SCM is faster than cache memory but slower than solid state drives.

Question 24

What is the functionality of the application server in a Mobile Device Management?

Options:

A.

Perform administration and management of all unmanaged devices

B.

Authenticate the device that requests access

C.

Perform administration and management of all managed devices

D.

Authorize devices directed to the server

Question 25

What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Options:

A.

Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.

B.

Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.

C.

Manages the storage space for all remote clients.

D.

Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

Question 26

What occurs when a company’s IT infrastructure security is breached by a passive attack?

Options:

A.

data is altered by an unauthorized user

B.

unauthorized system access is obtained

C.

access to services is denied

D.

availability of data is affected

Question 27

What is a benefit of using an existing IP-based network infrastructure for storage connectivity?

Options:

A.

Provide a dedicated network for storage

B.

Provide the ability to extend the network over long distances

C.

Ensure lossless transmission of FC traffic over Ethernet

D.

Ensure security by allowing only localized data movement

Question 28

in a NAS environment, which file system provides a public or open variation of the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol and uses the TCP/IP protocol?

Options:

A.

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

B.

New Technology File System (NTFS)

C.

Network File System (NFS)

D.

Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)

Question 29

Question # 29

Based on the exhibit, which type of storage does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

File-based

B.

Block-based

C.

Object-based

D.

Unified-based

Question 30

In a data archiving environment, which component scans primary storage to find the files that are required to archive?

Options:

A.

Archive stub file

B.

Archive agent

C.

Archive storage

D.

Archive database server

Question 31

Which standard provides FCoE with a lossless Ethernet network?

Options:

A.

SCSI Remote Direct Memory Access

B.

Data Center Bridging

C.

Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol

D.

InfiniBand

Question 32

When should FCIP be used to interconnect FC SANs?

Options:

A.

to converge FC and IP traffic onto a single network transport within a distance of 200 km

B.

to interconnect local and remote FC SANs at distances within 200 km

C.

to converge FC and IP traffic onto a single network transport at distances greater than 200 km

D.

to interconnect local and remote FC SANs at distances greater than 200 km

Question 33

Refer to the Exhibit:

Question # 33

Select the option that represents the three Zone Types for each of the labeled zones.

Options:

A.

Zone1: Port

Zone2: WWW

Zone3: Fabric

B.

Zone1: Mixed

Zone2: WWW

Zone3: Port

C.

Zone1: Fabric

Zone2: WWW

Zone3: Mixed

D.

Zone1: WWW

Zone2: Mixed

Zone3: Port

Question 34

Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?

Options:

A.

Data Link

B.

Session

C.

Network

D.

Transport

Question 35

Match the object-based storage device (OSD) features with their descriptions.

Question # 35

Options:

Question 36

What is determined by the amount of space configured for the journal in continuous data protection (CDP) replication?

Options:

A.

Length of time required to recover the data

B.

Length of time the recovery points can go back

C.

Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point

D.

Amount of space the source and replica volumes require

Question 37

What set of factors are used to calculate the disk service time of a hard disk drive?

Options:

A.

Seek time

Rotational latency

Data transfer rate

B.

Seek time

Rotational latency

I/O operations per second

C.

Seek time

Rotational latency

RAID level

D.

Seek time

Rotational latency

Bandwidth

Question 38

In a data center environment, what is an advantage of using parity-based RAID protection over mirroring?

Options:

A.

Eliminates the write penalty for improving the performance

B.

Improves the efficiency of logical disk drives in the RAID set

C.

Increases the performance of small write I/O operation

D.

Reduces the storage capacity required to protect the data

Question 39

What information is available in a capacity planning report for storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

number of units of storage available, used and the cost

B.

current and historic information about the utilization of storage, file systems, and ports

C.

equipment purchase dates, licenses, lease status, and maintenance records

D.

current and historical performance information about IT components and operations

Question 40

Refer to the Exhibit:

Question # 40

What type of data protection is represented?

Options:

A.

Deduplication

B.

Migration

C.

Archiving

D.

Backup

Question 41

Which three parameters define information availability in a modern data center environment?

Options:

A.

Reliability -

Accessibility -

Timeliness

B.

Capacity -

Availability -

Security

C.

Confidentiality -

Integrity -

Availability

D.

Reliability -

Integrity -

Performance

Question 42

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM, Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 7 occurs in the week as follows:

Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM

Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM

Thursday = 4 AM to 9 AM

Friday = 2 PM to6 PM

Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 7 in that week?

Options:

A.

75%

B.

83.3%

C.

80%

D.

68.3%

Question 43

How is NVMe used to connect a host to M.2 storage devices?

Options:

A.

through an embedded PCIe controller

B.

through a PCIe bus FC HBA card

C.

through a PCIe bus card

D.

through an embedded FC HBA controller

Question 44

What functionality does the control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Forwards data packets based on application layer requirements

B.

Defines network behavior through physical network device policies

C.

Establishes communication between the infrastructure and interface layers

D.

Extracts network information from the data plane and sends it to the application layer

Question 45

Which statement is true regarding virtual provisioning?

Options:

A.

Shared and Thin LUNS can be expanded rapidly with only minor disruptions

B.

Multiple shared storage pools can be created while each pool must be allocated to a unique thin LUN

C.

Virtual provisioning enables more efficient allocation of storage to compute systems

D.

Virtual provisioning prevents issues that arise from oversubscription

Question 46

What triggers an appropriate workflow upon receiving a service provisioning or management request?

Options:

A.

Alerts

B.

Orchestrated operations

C.

Recovery time objective

D.

Infrastructure discovery

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 47

What type of Fibre Channel port does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

N_port

B.

F_port

C.

E_port

D.

NL_port

Question 48

Which VM file is used to keep a record of the VM's activity and is often used for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

Configuration file

B.

Virtual disk file

C.

Log file

D.

Memory state file

Question 49

Match the functionality of a security goal with its description.

Question # 49

Options:

Question 50

Refer to the Exhibit:

Question # 50

Identify the following FC Frame fields:

Options:

A.

1CRC 2:Data field 3:Frame header

B.

1:Frame header 2:Data field 3CRC

C.

1CRC 2:Frame header 3:Data field

D.

1:Frame header 2CRC 3:Data field

Question 51

What is a feature a hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a clustered compute system

B.

Isolates the VMS on a single compute system

C.

Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a single compute system

D.

Isolates the physical resources of a single compute system

Question 52

Refer to the Exhibit:

Question # 52

What type of FC port does the "X" represent?

Options:

A.

F_port

B.

NI_port

C.

N_port

D.

E_port

Question 53

An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 7 occurs as follows:

● Monday=4 PM to 11 PM

● Wednesday= 2 PM to 10 PM

● Friday= 5 AM to11 AM

What is the MTTR of Port 7?

Options:

A.

36 hours

B.

5 hours

C.

7 hours

D.

33 hours

Question 54

A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?

Options:

A.

Intrusion-based

B.

Policy-based

C.

Anomaly- Based

D.

Signature-based

Question 55

Which method automatically allocates a large capacity secondary cache using SSD and SCM?

Options:

A.

Cache provisioning

B.

Volatile cache

C.

Cache tiering

D.

Non-volatile cache

Question 56

Which security mechanism ensures secure access to internal assets while enabling Internet-based access to selected resources?

Options:

A.

Virtual local area network

B.

Demilitarized zone

C.

Virtual private network

D.

Discovery domain

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Total 189 questions