CompTIA SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2021 Exam Practice Test

After segmenting the network, a network manager can use an access control list (ACL) to control the traffic between the segments. An ACL is a set of rules that permit or deny traffic based on its characteristics, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

When selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time, the longevity of the encryption algorithm should be considered to ensure that the data remains secure for the required period. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.2 Given a scenario, use appropriate cryptographic methods. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 131.

During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.

Implementing input validations will prevent code injection attacks by verifying the type and format of user input. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8

SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.

A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.

The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

To protect the servers in the company’s DMZ from external attack due to the new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems, the security administrator should block TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ.

SMB uses TCP port 139 and 445. Blocking these ports will prevent external attackers from exploiting the vulnerability in SMB protocol on Windows systems.

Blocking TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ can help protect the servers, as these ports are used by SMB protocol. Port 135 is also associated with SMB, but it is not commonly used. Ports 143 and 161 are associated with other protocols and services. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.4 Compare and contrast network architecture and technologies.

Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during the emergency maintenance activity due to unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules. The SIEM generates alerts when it detects an event that matches a rule in its rulebase. If the event matches multiple rules, the SIEM will generate multiple alerts.

To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.

Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.

The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.

A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. Data custodian is a role that implements and maintains the technical controls and procedures for data security and integrity. A data custodian does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in operational tasks than strategic decisions.
• B. Data owner is a role that determines the classification and usage of data within an organization. A data owner does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in business functions than data protection compliance.
• D. Data controller is a role that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization. A data controller does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in data processing activities than data protection oversight.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:

“A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/data-protection-officer/

SMS-based authentication is considered to be the least secure among the given options. This is because SMS messages can be intercepted or redirected by attackers through techniques such as SIM swapping, man-in-the-middle attacks, or exploiting weaknesses in the SS7 protocol used by mobile networks. Additionally, SMS messages can be compromised if a user's phone is lost, stolen, or infected with malware. In contrast, TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password), HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time Password), and token keys are more secure as they rely on cryptographic algorithms or physical devices to generate one-time use codes, which are less susceptible to interception or unauthorized access. Reference: 1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2017). Digital Identity Guidelines: Authentication and Lifecycle Management (NIST SP 800-63B). https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs /SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63b.pdf

Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.

"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112

two possible solutions that can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccurring are password history and geofencing12. Password history is a feature that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords1. This can enhance password security by forcing users to create new and unique passwords periodically1. Password history can be configured by setting a policy that specifies how many previous passwords are remembered and how often users must change their passwords1.

Geofencing is a feature that restricts access to a system or network based on the geographic location of the user or device2. This can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access from hostile or foreign regions2. Geofencing can be implemented by using GPS, IP address, or other methods to determine the location of the user or device and compare it with a predefined set of boundaries2.

If the systems are running unsecure protocols and the company that developed them is no longer in business, it is likely that there are no patches available to remediate the issue. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.6: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 35-36

A social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested is known as whaling. Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts.

ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7

The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7

Single Sign-On (SSO) is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple applications with a single set of login credentials. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 6

Enforcing the use of a controlled trusted source of container images is the best solution to prevent incidents like the introduction of a zero-day vulnerability through container images from occurring again. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 11: Cloud Security, Container Security

The organization should ensure that a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is installed on all laptops in order to enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE). TPM is a hardware-based security chip that stores encryption keys and helps to protect data from malicious attacks. It is important to ensure that the TPM is properly configured and enabled in order to get the most out of FDE.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.

To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

A jump server is a secure host that allows users to access other servers within a network. The jump server acts as an intermediary, and users can access other servers via the jump server after authenticating with MFA.

Auto-update can help keep the app up-to-date with the latest security fixes and enhancements, and reduce the risk of exploitation by attackers who target outdated or vulnerable versions of the app.

Sandboxing can help isolate the app from other processes and resources on the system, and limit its access and permissions to only what is necessary. Sandboxing can help prevent the app from being affected by or affecting other applications or system components, and contain any potential damage in case of a breach.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment. Any organization that accepts credit card payments is required to comply with PCI DSS.

Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

The company can use a wildcard certificate to secure its website if it is concerned with convenience and cost. A wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains, which makes it cost-effective and convenient for securing the various registered domains.

The retail company should use a wildcard certificate if it is concerned with convenience and cost12. A wildcard SSL certificate is a single SSL/TLS certificate that can provide significant time and cost savings, particularly for small businesses. The certificate includes a wildcard character (*) in the domain name field, and can secure multiple subdomains of the primary domain1

Retina authentication is the most accurate biometric authentication method. Retina authentication is based on recognizing the unique pattern of blood vessels and other features in the retina. This makes it virtually impossible to duplicate or bypass, making it the most secure form of biometric authentication currently available.

MDM solutions emerged to solve problems created by BYOD. With MDM, IT teams can remotely wipe devices clean if they are lost or stolen. MDM also makes the life of an IT administrator a lot easier as it allows them to enforce corporate policies, apply software updates, and even ensure that password protection is used on each device. Containerization and application whitelisting are two features of MDM that can help retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.

Containerization is a technique that creates a separate and secure space on the device for work-related data and applications. This way, personal and corporate data are isolated from each other, and IT admins can manage only the work container without affecting the user’s privacy. Containerization also allows IT admins to remotely wipe only the work container if needed, leaving the personal data intact.

Application whitelisting is a technique that allows only authorized applications to run on the device. This way, IT admins can prevent users from installing or using malicious or unapproved applications that might compromise the security of corporate data. Application whitelisting also allows IT admins to control which applications can access corporate resources, such as email servers or cloud storage.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.office1.com/blog/byod-vs-mdm

A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.

If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.

The other options are not correct because:

• B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
• C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server.
• D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/

Staging is an environment in the software development lifecycle that is used to test a modified version of the actual data, current version configurations, and code. This environment compares user-story responses and workflow before the software is released to the production environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, pg. 496

Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7

The organization should use a communications plan to inform the affected parties. A communications plan is a document that outlines how an organization will communicate with internal and external stakeholders during a crisis or incident. It should include details such as who will be responsible for communicating with different stakeholders, what channels will be used to communicate, and what messages will be communicated.

An incident response plan is a document that outlines the steps an organization will take to respond to a security incident or data breach. A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover its IT infrastructure and data after a disaster.

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.

A communications plan should be used to inform the affected parties about the sale of sensitive user data on a website. The communications plan should detail how the organization will handle media inquiries, how to communicate with customers, and how to respond to other interested parties.

The test environment is used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 2

A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.

Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:

Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing

Discover private data like social security numbers

Send money to the attacker

Install malware on a phone

Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails

Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.

Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.

Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

EAP-FAST (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling) supports mutual authentication and is designed to simplify the deployment of strong, password-based authentication. EAP-FAST includes a mechanism for detecting rogue access points. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes security-related data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 5

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a solution that can defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. A NGFW is a type of firewall that can perform deep packet inspection, application-level filtering, intrusion prevention, malware detection, and identity-based access control. A NGFW can also use threat intelligence and behavioral analysis to identify and block malicious traffic based on protocols, signatures, or anomalies. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-next-generation-firewall https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

A false positive is a result that indicates a problem when there is no actual problem. In this case, the vulnerability scan flagged the domain controller with a critical vulnerability, but the domain controller does not run the application that is vulnerable. Therefore, the scan result is inaccurate and should be documented as a false positive.

A. Ensure the scan engine is configured correctly. This is not the next step, because the scan engine may be configured correctly and still produce false positives due to various factors, such as outdated signatures, network latency, or misconfigured devices.

B. Apply a patch to the domain controller. This is not the next step, because applying a patch to a system that does not have the vulnerability may cause unnecessary problems or conflicts.

C. Research the CVE. This is not the next step, because the systems administrator already researched the vulnerability and discovered that it does not affect the domain controller.

D. Document this as a false positive. This is the correct answer, because documenting false positives helps to improve the accuracy and efficiency of future scans and audits.

The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is best known as federation. Federation is a process that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. For example, a user can use their Google account to sign in to various websites or applications that support federation, without creating separate accounts or passwords for each one. Federation can improve user convenience and security, as well as reduce administrative overhead.

Thin clients are devices that rely on a server or a cloud service to perform most of the processing and storage tasks, while only providing a minimal interface for the user. Thin clients are low-cost solutions that can enable users on the shop floor to log in to the VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure) environment directly, without requiring a full-fledged computer or laptop.

A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system without the user’s knowledge or consent. A RAT can perform various malicious activities on the system, such as stealing data, installing other malware, deleting files, modifying settings, capturing keystrokes, recording audio or video, etc. In this case, the attacker most likely used a RAT to gain administrative access to the network through a file downloaded from a social media site and subsequently installed it without the user’s knowledge

An insider threat is a threat to an organization that comes from negligent or malicious insiders, such as employees, former employees, contractors, third-party vendors, or business partners, who have inside information about cybersecurity practices, sensitive data, and computer systems. The action described in the question is an example of a malicious insider threat, where an employee intentionally misused their authorized access to harm the organization by stealing customer records and diverting funds to their personal bank account. References: What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Types, and Prevention - Fortinet; What are insider threats? | IBM; What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Examples, and Mitigations; Insider Threat Mitigation | Cybersecurity and Infrastructure … - CISA

Impossible travel time is an anomaly detection that indicates a possible compromise of a user account. It occurs when the same user connects from two different countries and the time between those connections is shorter than the time it would take to travel from the first location to the second by conventional means. This suggests that a different user is using the same credentials or that a proxy or VPN is being used to mask the true location. The log activity shows that the user connected from two different IP addresses in different countries (US and Brazil) within a span of 37 minutes, which is impossible to achieve by normal travel. References: Detecting and Remediating Impossible Travel - Microsoft Community Hub; Anomaly detection policies - Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps; Understanding Microsoft 365 Impossible Travel Rules | Blumira

The directory traversal attack was successfully implemented based on the output. The output shows that the administrator used a tool called Nikto, which is a web server scanner that can detect vulnerabilities and misconfigurations3. The output also shows that Nikto found several files and directories that should not be accessible by web users, such as “/etc/passwd”, “/var/log”, “/etc/shadow”, etc. This indicates that the web server or application has a vulnerability that allows an attacker to manipulate the file path and access arbitrary files on the server. This is a type of attack known as directory traversal, which can lead to information disclosure, privilege escalation, or remote code execution.

chmod is a Linux command that can be used to change or modify the permissions of files and directories. The /etc/shadow file is a system file that stores the encrypted passwords of user accounts in Linux. The /etc/shadow file should have restricted permissions to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the passwords. The recommended permissions for the /etc/shadow file are read/write for root user only (600). If the systems administrator observes that the /etc/shadow file has permissions beyond the baseline recommendation, they can use the chmod command to resolve this issue by setting the appropriate permissions for the file. For example, chmod 600 /etc/shadow would set the permissions of the /etc/shadow file to read/write for root user only. 181920 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9: Implementing Identity and Access Management Controls, page 404; chmod - Wikipedia; Linux /etc/shadow file - nixCraft; How to Change File Permissions in Linux - Linuxize

A replay attack is a type of network attack where an attacker captures and retransmits a valid data transmission, such as a login request, to gain unauthorized access or impersonate a legitimate user. In this case, the attacker may have captured the credentials of the app admin test account and used them to log in to the application. The application log shows multiple failed login attempts from different IP addresses, which indicates a replay attack.

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves discussing hypothetical scenarios and testing the incident response plan in a low-stress environment. A tabletop exercise can help an organization to improve its incident response process by identifying gaps, weaknesses, roles, responsibilities, communication channels, etc., and by evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the plan.

A threat actor who used a sophisticated attack to breach a well-known ride-sharing company and posted on social media that this action was in response to the company’s treatment of its drivers is most likely a hacktivist. A hacktivist is a person who uses hacking skills to promote a social or political cause, such as human rights, environmentalism, or anti-corporatism5.

A service level agreement (SLA) defines response time, escalation points, and performance metrics. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the level and quality of service that will be delivered. An SLA typically includes metrics such as availability, reliability, throughput, latency, security, etc., as well as penalties or remedies for failing to meet them. An SLA also defines how issues will be reported and resolved, how often reviews will be conducted, and how changes will be communicated.

A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

Directory traversal (also known as file path traversal) is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to read arbitrary files on the server that is running an application. This might include application code and data, credentials for back-end systems, and sensitive operating system files1. In some cases, an attacker might be able to write to arbitrary files on the server, allowing them to modify application data or behavior, and ultimately take full control of the server1.

Directory traversal in its simplest form uses the …/ pattern, which means to step up one level in the directory structure. By repeating this pattern, an attacker can traverse to the root directory and then access any file or folder on the server. For example, the following request attempts to read the Unix password file /etc/passwd from the server:

http://company.com/get.php?f=/etc/passwd

Some web applications may implement some defenses against directory traversal attacks, such as filtering out …/ patterns or percent-decoding the user input before validating it. However, these defenses can often be bypassed by using variations or encoding techniques. For example, the following requests use different ways to represent …/ or / characters:

http://company.com/…%2F…%2F…%2Fetc%2Fpasswd

http://company.com/…/…/…/%2Fetc%2Fpasswd

http://company.com/%2E%2E/%2E%2E/%2E%2E/etc/passwd

These requests may still result in directory traversal attacks if the web application does not properly handle them12.

A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution3. The requests in the question do not contain any SQL statements or commands.

B. CSRF. This is not the correct answer, because CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials4. The requests in the question do not indicate that they are forged or sent by another website.

C. API attacks. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API attacks are attacks that target the vulnerabilities or weaknesses of APIs, such as authentication, authorization, encryption, rate limiting, or input validation5. The requests in the question do not target any specific API functionality or feature.

D. Directory traversal. This is the correct answer, because directory traversal is an attack that exploits insufficient security validation or sanitization of user-supplied file names, such that characters representing “traverse to parent directory” are passed through to the operating system’s file system API12. The requests in the question contain various patterns of …/ or / characters that attempt to access restricted files and directories on the server.

A cold aisle and a hot aisle are design strategies for data centers that aim to improve the cooling efficiency and reduce the energy consumption. They involve lining up server racks in alternating rows with cold air intakes facing one side (the cold aisle) and hot air exhausts facing the other side (the hot aisle). This prevents the mixing of hot and cold air and creates a more uniform temperature distribution. The cold aisles receive cold air from the cooling units, while the hot aisles return hot air to the cooling units. This improves the performance and reliability of the IT equipment and lowers the cooling costs. References: Hot and Cold-Aisle Containment - Advantages & Disadvantages - AKCP; Hot Aisle Containment vs. Cold Aisle Containment: Which is Better for the Data Center? - Upsite; Aisle Containment Systems FAQ for Hot & Cold Aisle Solutions - Cool Shield; Hot and Cold Aisle Containment Differences - AKCP Monitoring; What is Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle? - Definition from Techopedia

SSO stands for Single Sign-On, which is a technology that allows users to log in to multiple websites using a single set of credentials, such as a username and password or a digital certificate. SSO eliminates the need for users to create and remember multiple accounts and passwords for different websites, and simplifies the authentication process. SSO also enhances security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and identity theft.

An internet company that has created a new collaboration application can implement SSO to allow users to log in to the application with the credentials of other popular websites, such as Google, Facebook, or Twitter. This way, users do not have to create a new account for the application, and can use their existing accounts from other websites that they trust and use frequently. This can increase the user base and the convenience of the application.

Some examples of SSO technologies are OpenID, OAuth, and SAML. These technologies provide different ways of establishing trust and exchanging information between the websites that act as identity providers (IDPs) and the websites that act as relying parties (RPs). The IDPs are the websites that authenticate the users and provide their credentials or attributes to the RPs. The RPs are the websites that accept the users’ credentials or attributes from the IDPs and grant them access to their services.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework would best support the analyst’s review of the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns. The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base that describes the common TTPs used by various threat actors across different stages of an attack lifecycle. The framework can help security analysts understand how adversaries operate, what tools they use, what vulnerabilities they exploit, what indicators they leave behind, etc. The framework can also help security analysts improve their detection and response capabilities by providing recommendations and best practices.

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is a network security protocol that should be implemented to ensure the strongest encryption for a wireless network. WPA2 is an upgrade from the original WPA protocol, which was designed as a replacement for the older and less secure WEP protocol. WPA2 implements the mandatory elements of IEEE 802.11i standard, including CCMP, an AES-based encryption mode. WPA2 provides stronger security and data protection than WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup), WAP (Wireless Application Protocol), or HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

Data is being exfiltrated when an internal system is sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a system or network to an external destination or actor. Data exfiltration can be performed by malicious insiders or external attackers who have compromised the system or network. DNS queries are requests for resolving domain names to IP addresses. DNS queries can be used as a covert channel for data exfiltration by encoding data in the domain names or subdomains and sending them to a malicious DNS server that can decode and collect the data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exfiltration https: //www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. In this case, the attacker may have tricked the user into clicking a malicious link or visiting a malicious website that sends forged requests to the web server of the bank, using the user’s session cookie or other credentials. The web server then performs the money transfer requests as if they were initiated by the user, without verifying the origin or validity of the requests.

A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution2. The output of the web server log does not show any SQL statements or commands.

B. CSRF. This is the correct answer, because CSRF is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials1. The output of the web server log shows multiple GET requests with different account numbers and amounts, which may indicate a CSRF attack.

C. Spear phishing. This is not the correct answer, because spear phishing is an attack that targets a specific individual or organization with a personalized email or message that contains a malicious link or attachment3. The output of the web server log does not show any email or message content or headers.

D. API. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API is not an attack method, but rather a way of designing and developing software applications.

Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk mitigation measures, such as controls, policies, or procedures. It reflects the level of uncertainty and potential impact that cannot be completely eliminated by risk management efforts. Residual risk is calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the inherent risk, or by multiplying the inherent risk by the risk control effectiveness. Residual risk should be compared to the acceptable level of risk to determine if further action is needed or if the risk can be accepted by the management. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 456; Residual risk - Wikipedia; Residual risk definition and why it’s important - Advisera

Documenting the collection and requiring a sign-off when possession changes are essential steps for maintaining chain of custody during an investigation. Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity and authenticity of evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. Documenting the collection involves recording information such as date, time, location, description, serial number, etc., of the evidence. Requiring a sign-off when possession changes involves obtaining signatures from every person who handles or transfers the evidence.

Communication protocols are the rules and standards that govern how devices communicate over a network. They are essential for ensuring security, reliability, and compatibility among different loT devices. Some examples of communication protocols for loT are MQTT, CoAP, HTTP, and Zigbee.

A supply-chain attack is a type of cyberattack that targets a trusted third-party vendor who offers services or products vital to the supply chain. A supply-chain attack can occur in software or hardware. In this case, the most likely scenario is that the SoC (system on chip) was compromised by a malicious actor before it was delivered to the company, either by tampering with or replacing it with a malicious version. This would allow the attacker to gain access to the company’s systems through the specially configured workstations

Security awareness training is an administrative control that educates users on the best practices and policies for protecting the organization’s data and systems from various threats, such as malware, phishing, social engineering, etc. Security awareness training can reduce the occurrence of malware execution by increasing the users’ ability to recognize and avoid malicious links, attachments, downloads, or websites.

A USB data blocker is a device that prevents data transfer between a USB device and a host computer, while still allowing charging. This can prevent data breaches caused by malicious USB chargers or devices that may attempt to access or infect the phone’s data.

A clean desk policy is a set of rules that require employees to clear their desks of any documents, papers, or devices that contain sensitive or confidential information when they leave their workstations. This policy helps to prevent unauthorized access, theft, or disclosure of proprietary information during facility tours or other situations where outsiders may visit the premises.

A. Clean desk policy. This is the correct answer, because a clean desk policy is a simple and effective way to mitigate the risk of exposing proprietary information during facility tours.

Impossible travel time is a security metric that detects anomalous login attempts based on the time and distance between two locations. Impossible travel time can help prevent email account compromises by flagging login attempts that occur within a short time span from locations that are far apart, such as France and Brazil. Impossible travel time can indicate that an attacker has stolen or guessed the user’s credentials and is trying to access their email account from another location.

A dynamic code analysis tool is a security tool that can improve vulnerability detection on this environment by testing and analyzing the software during runtime. Dynamic code analysis can identify potential vulnerabilities, errors, or performance issues that may not be visible in the source code or during static analysis, such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or input validation errors. Dynamic code analysis can also simulate real-world scenarios and user inputs to evaluate the behavior and functionality of the software

Dynamic code analysis is a technique that tests and analyzes an application during runtime to identify potential vulnerabilities, errors, or performance issues. Dynamic code analysis can detect problems that may not be visible in the source code or during static analysis, such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or input validation errors. Dynamic code analysis can also simulate real-world scenarios and user inputs to evaluate the behavior and functionality of the application. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security Solutions, page 246; What is Dynamic Code Analysis?

Username lockout is a security feature that prevents an attacker from brute-forcing user credentials by locking out an account after a certain number of failed login attempts. This can prevent the attacker from harvesting user credentials on a client’s website. The logon screen message that reveals the username does not exist is a security weakness that can help the attacker to guess valid usernames. A better message would be “Invalid username or password”.

HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.

A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.

D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

The most likely cause of the issue is that the S/MIME plug-in is not enabled. S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard that allows email users to encrypt and digitally sign their messages. S/MIME uses public key cryptography and certificates to ensure confidentiality, integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation of email communications. However, S/MIME requires both the sender and the receiver to have compatible email clients and plug-ins that support S/MIME functionality. If the receiver does not have the S/MIME plug-in enabled, they will not be able to decrypt or verify the encrypted message.

The SIEM log shows that the user opened an email attachment named “Invoice.xlsx” and then executed a PowerShell script that downloaded and ran a malicious file from a remote server. This indicates that the attacker was able to bypass the application approve list by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file. This is a common technique used by malware authors to evade detection and deliver their payloads1.

A smart card is a physical device that contains an embedded integrated circuit chip that can store and process data. A smart card can be used as a second authentication factor, in addition to a password, to verify the identity of a user who wants to log in to company-owned devices. A smart card requires a smart card reader to access the data on the chip, which adds an extra layer of security. A smart card meets the requirements of the company because it does not involve a smartphone or any other device that is not allowed at the desks

A transit gateway is a network transit hub that can be used to interconnect virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. A transit gateway can consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall by offering the following features:

• Attachments that can connect one or more VPCs, a Connect SD-WAN/third-party network appliance, an AWS Direct Connect gateway, a peering connection with another transit gateway, or a VPN connection to a transit gateway.
• Transit gateway route table that can include dynamic and static routes that decide the next hop based on the destination IP address of the packet.
• Associations and route propagation that can link each attachment with a route table and dynamically propagate routes to or from a transit gateway route table. References: What is a transit gateway? - Amazon VPC; Network Gateway – AWS Transit Gateway – Amazon Web Services; Configure VPN gateway transit for virtual network peering; AWS — Difference between VPC Peering and Transit Gateway

An air gap is a security measure that physically isolates a section of the network from any other network or device that could compromise its security. An air gap prevents any unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection through network connections, such as Ethernet cables, wireless signals, or Bluetooth devices. An air gap can be used to protect sensitive or critical systems and data from external threats, such as hackers, spies, or cyberattacks.

The correct answer is B. CVSS.

CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a framework that provides a standardized way to measure the criticality of a vulnerability based on various factors, such as the impact, exploitability, and remediation level of the vulnerability. CVSS assigns a numerical score from 0 to 10 to each vulnerability, where 0 means no risk and 10 means the highest risk. CVSS also provides a qualitative rating for each score, such as low, medium, high, or critical. CVSS helps organizations prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on their severity and potential impact12.

CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a list of publicly known and standardized identifiers for vulnerabilities and exposures in software and hardware systems. CVE provides a brief description of each vulnerability or exposure, but does not assign a score or rating to them. CVE helps organizations communicate and share information about vulnerabilities and exposures in a consistent and reliable way3 .

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It is a model that defines the three main objectives of information security. Confidentiality means protecting data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity means ensuring data is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with. Availability means ensuring data is accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. CIA helps organizations design and implement security controls and policies to protect their data and systems .

CERT stands for Computer Emergency Response Team. It is a group of experts who respond to security incidents and provide guidance and assistance to mitigate and prevent cyberattacks. CERT also conducts research and analysis on cybersecurity trends and issues, and disseminates information and best practices to the public. CERT helps organizations improve their security posture and resilience against cyber threats .

For more information on CVSS and other concepts related to vulnerability assessment and management, you can refer to [this video] or [this guide] from CompTIA Security+.

The web server logs are records of the requests and responses that occur between a web server and a web client, such as a browser. The web server logs can show where the malware originated by indicating the source IP address, the destination URL, the date and time, the HTTP status code, the user agent, etc., of each request and response. The web server logs can help the incident response team to trace back the malicious website that infected the host with malware.

Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions would be best to mitigate the CEO’s concerns about staff members working from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsourcing work to a third-party organization in another country. Geolocation is a technique that involves determining the physical location of a device or user based on its IP address, GPS coordinates, Wi-Fi signals, or other indicators. Time-of-day restrictions are policies that limit the access or usage of resources based on the time of day or week. Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions can help to enforce access control rules, prevent unauthorized access, detect anomalous behavior, and comply with regulations. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-geolocation https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

A generator and a UPS (uninterruptible power supply) are low-cost solutions that can provide backup power to an organization in case of a power outage. A generator is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, while a UPS is a device that provides battery power to a system when the main power source fails. A generator and a UPS can help the organization to maintain its operations and prevent data loss during a power outage.

The user input credentials into a pop-up window that was not part of the trusted website. This suggests that the attacker was able to forge a certificate and present a fake website that looked like the legitimate one. This is a type of attack known as certificate forgery, which exploits the trust relationship between users and websites that use SSL/TLS encryption2.

A syslog server is a centralized log management system that collects, stores, and manages syslog messages generated by various network devices, servers, applications, and other sources. A syslog server can assist the investigators in this case because it can provide an alternative source of log files that may contain evidence of the incident. The privileged user may have deleted the local log files on the server, but not the remote log files on the syslog server. Therefore, the investigators can access the syslog server and analyze the log messages related to the user’s activities and actions

Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows cloud providers to adjust the amount and distribution of computing resources according to the changing demand and capacity of the cloud environment1. Dynamic resource allocation can improve the efficiency and utilization of available computing power, as well as reduce the cost and energy consumption of the cloud infrastructure1. Dynamic resource allocation can also enhance the system availability and reliability by avoiding potential denial-of-service situations caused by overloading or under-provisioning of resources1.

A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes malicious code when certain conditions are met. A logic bomb can be triggered by various events, such as a specific date or time, a user action, a system configuration change, or a command from an attacker. A logic bomb can perform various malicious actions, such as deleting files, encrypting data, displaying messages, or launching other malware.

The snippet of Python code shows a logic bomb that executes a function called delete_all_files() when the current date is December 25th. The code uses the datetime module to get the current date and compare it with a predefined date object. If the condition is true, the code calls the delete_all_files() function, which presumably deletes all files on the system.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/logic-bomb

Compensating controls are additional security measures that are implemented to reduce the risk of non-compliant controls. They do not fix the underlying issue, but they provide an alternative way of achieving the same security objective. For example, if a system does not have encryption, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the system or use a secure network connection.

Patch management is classified as a corrective control because it is used to correct vulnerabilities or weaknesses in systems and applications after they have been identified. It is a reactive approach that aims to fix problems that have already occurred rather than prevent them from happening in the first place.

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a solution that can collect, correlate, and analyze security logs and events from various devices on a network. SIEM can provide better visibility into user activities by generating reports, alerts, dashboards, and metrics. SIEM can also help detect and respond to security incidents, comply with regulations, and improve security posture.

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help reduce the risk of further exfiltration using file storage sites on the internet by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, upload, or download sensitive data to or from file storage sites based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Using cable locks on the hardware can be an effective way to secure a desktop computer and deter future theft. Cable locks are physical security devices that attach to the computer case and to a nearby stationary object, such as a desk or wall. This makes it more difficult for a thief to remove the computer without damaging it or attracting attention.

Installing proximity card readers on all entryway doors can enhance physical security by limiting access to authorized individuals. Deploying motion sensor cameras in the lobby can also help deter theft by capturing images of any unauthorized individuals entering the premises or attempting to steal the computer. Encrypting the hard drive on the replacement desktop can also help protect sensitive data in the event of theft, but it does not provide physical security for the device itself.

The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

SQL injection is one of the most common web hacking techniques. SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements, via web page input12. A SQL injection attack consists of insertion or “injection” of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system and in some cases issue commands to the operating system3.

According to the pseudocode given in the question, the application takes a user input for display name and concatenates it with a SQL query to update the user’s profile. This is a vulnerable practice that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL code into the query and execute it on the database. For example, an attacker could enter something like this as their display name:

John'; DROP TABLE users; --

This would result in the following SQL query being executed:

UPDATE profile SET displayname = 'John'; DROP TABLE users; --' WHERE userid = 1;

The semicolon (;) terminates the original update statement and starts a new one that drops the users table. The double dash (–) comments out the rest of the query. This would cause a catastrophic loss of data for the application.

Correlation dashboards are tools that allow security analysts to monitor and analyze multiple sources of data and events in real time. They can help identify patterns, trends, anomalies, and threats by correlating different types of data and events, such as network traffic, logs, alerts, and incidents. Correlation dashboards can help investigate network flooding by showing the source, destination, volume, and type of malicious packets and their impact on the network performance and availability. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-correlation-dashboard

A reverse proxy backdoor is a malicious reverse proxy that can intercept and manipulate the traffic between the client and the web server3. This can allow an attacker to access sensitive data or execute commands on the web server.

One possible way to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact is to add the application hash to the organization’s blocklist. A blocklist is a list of applications or files that are not allowed to run on a system or network. By adding the application hash to the blocklist, the security engineer can prevent the malicious application from running and communicating with the reverse proxy backdoor.

zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.

According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

A data collector is a person or entity that collects personal data from individuals for a specific purpose. A data collector may or may not be the same as the data controller or the data processor, depending on who determines the purpose and means of processing the data and who actually processes the data.

Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

 An authentication application can generate one-time passwords or QR codes that are time-based and unique to each user and device. It does not rely on network connectivity or SMS delivery, which can be intercepted or delayed. It also does not require the user to respond to a push notification, which can be accidentally approved or ignored.

A snapshot backup is a type of backup that captures the state of a system at a point in time. It is highly time- and storage-efficient because it only records the changes made to the system since the last backup. It also has no impact on production systems because it does not require them to be offline or paused during the backup process. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-snapshot-backup

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive data, such as a unique identifier. This means that the data is still present in the system, but the sensitive information itself is replaced with the token. Tokenization is more secure than masking, which only obscures the data but does not eliminate it. DLP is not suitable for this task, as it is designed to prevent the loss or leakage of data from the system. SSL/TLS can be used to secure the transmission of data, but it cannot prevent the data itself from being exposed or reused. For more information, please refer to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Explain the security purpose of authentication, authorization and accounting (AAA) services, and Section 4.7: Explain the purpose and characteristics of various types of encryption.

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn

A buffer overflow attack occurs when an attacker inputs more data than the buffer can store, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations and corrupt or execute code1. In this case, the attacker entered thousands of characters into a text box that was intended for phone numbers, which are much shorter. This could result in a buffer overflow attack that compromises the web application or server. The other options are not related to this scenario. Privilege escalation is when an attacker gains unauthorized access to higher-level privileges or resources2. Resource exhaustion is when an attacker consumes all the available resources of a system, such as CPU, memory, disk space, etc., to cause a denial of service3. Cross-site scripting is when an attacker injects malicious code into a web page that is executed by the browser of a victim who visits the page.

References: 1: https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/buffer-overflow  2: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/pr ivilege-escalation/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/resource-exhaustion/ : https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/xss/

Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated

A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?

A. Multipathing

B. RAID

C. Segmentation

D. 8021.1

Answer: A

to achieve the objective of adding fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage is multipathing1. Multipathing is a technique that allows a system to use more than one path to access a storage device1. This can improve performance by distributing the workload across multiple paths, and also provide fault tolerance by switching to an alternative path if one path fails1. Multipathing can be implemented using software or hardware solutions1.

A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of the user and sends them to a remote attacker. The attacker can use the keystrokes to steal the user’s credentials, personal information, or other sensitive data. A keylogger can generate packets that contain large amounts of text, as the packet capture data shows.

Nmap is a tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications. Nmap can help a security administrator determine the services running on a server by sending various packets to the target and analyzing the responses. Nmap can also perform various tasks such as OS detection, version detection, script scanning, firewall evasion, and vulnerability scanning.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://nmap.org/

Based on CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ guide, the answer to the question is A. Identify rogue access points.

To secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities, the corporate security team should focus on identifying rogue access points, which are unauthorized access points that have been set up by employees or outsiders to bypass security controls. By identifying and removing these rogue access points, the team can ensure that only authorized users can access corporate resources through the wireless network.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

the difference between drop and reject in firewall is that the drop target sends nothing to the source, while the reject target sends a reject response to the source. This can affect how the source handles the connection attempt and how fast the port scanning is. In this context, a human might say that the best action to block a TCP connection using the corporate firewall is A. Drop, because it does not send back an RST packet and it may slow down the port scanning and protect against DoS attacks.

User-agent spoofing is a technique that involves changing the user-agent string of a web browser or other client to impersonate another browser or device. The user-agent string is a piece of information that identifies the client to the web server and can contain details such as the browser name, version, operating system, and device type. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on the user-agent string to determine the legitimacy of a request. In this scenario, the consultants were able to spoof the user-agent string of the company’s mobile application and access the API that should have been restricted to it.

Patch management is a process that involves applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patch management is classified under corrective control type, which is a type of control that aims to restore normal operations after an incident or event has occurred. Corrective controls can help mitigate the impact or damage caused by an incident or event and prevent it from happening again.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html

Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.

Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.

Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.

Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

Placing all known-infected hosts on an isolated network is the best way to stop the spread of a worm infection. This will prevent the worm from reaching other hosts on the network and allow the infected hosts to be cleaned and restored. Disconnecting every host from the network is not practical and may disrupt business operations. Running an AV scan on the entire network or scanning the hosts that show signs of infection may not be effective or fast enough to stop a fast-spreading worm.

Provisioning is the process of creating and setting up IT infrastructure, and includes the steps required to manage user and system access to various resources . Provisioning can be done for servers, cloud environments, users, networks, services, and more .

In this case, the security administrator wants to ensure that all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. This means that the administrator needs to provision the cloud servers with the necessary software and configuration before they are deployed or used by customers or end users. Provisioning can help automate and standardize the process of setting up cloud servers and reduce the risk of human errors or inconsistencies.

Industrial control systems (ICS) are devices that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, manufacturing, or transportation. Newer ICS devices may have voice and audio capabilities that can be exploited by attackers to eavesdrop on sensitive conversations or capture confidential information. This can result in the loss of intellectual property or trade secrets. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-industrial-control-system-security

ARP poisoning is a type of attack that exploits the ARP protocol to associate a malicious MAC address with a legitimate IP address on a network1. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify or drop traffic between the victim and other hosts on the same network. In this case, the ARP table of the access switch shows that the same MAC address (00-0c-29-58-35-3b) is associated with two different IP addresses (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) on port Fa0/12. This indicates that an attacker has poisoned the ARP table to redirect traffic intended for 192.168.1.100 to their own device with MAC address 00-0c-29-58-35-3b. The other options are not related to this scenario. DDoS is a type of attack that overwhelms a target with excessive traffic from multiple sources3. MAC flooding is a type of attack that floods a switch with fake MAC addresses to exhaust its MAC table and force it to operate as a hub4. DNS poisoning is a type of attack that corrupts the DNS cache with fake entries to redirect users to malicious websites.

References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/arp-spoofing/  2: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-knowledge-base/network-tables-mac-routing-arp/ta- p/4184148 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/ddos-att ack/ 4: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/mac-flooding/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dns-spoofing-poisoning/

A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.

A DLP solution in monitoring mode is a good first step to deploy for data loss prevention. It allows the IT team to observe and analyze the data flows and activities without blocking or interfering with them. It helps to identify the sources and destinations of sensitive data, the types and volumes of data involved, and the potential risks and violations. It also helps to fine-tune the DLP policies and rules before switching to blocking mode, which can disrupt business operations if not configured properly.

SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

Continuous validation is a process that involves performing regular and automated tests to verify the security and functionality of a system or an application. Continuous validation can help identify and remediate vulnerabilities, bugs, or misconfigurations before they cause any damage or disruption. The security administrator’s activities of performing weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and providing a detailed report are examples of continuous validation.

 User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.

A service account is a user account that is created specifically to run automated processes and services. These accounts are typically not associated with an individual user, and are used for running background services and scheduled tasks. By configuring a service account to run the automated processes, you can ensure that the account will not be disabled due to password complexity requirements and other user-related issues.

A private cloud model would best suit the company's priorities of control and security over cost and ease of management. In a private cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control over the environment and the ability to implement strict security measures. This is in contrast to public, community, or hybrid cloud models, where resources are shared among multiple organizations, potentially compromising control and security. While private clouds can be more expensive and more difficult to manage, they the highest level of control and security for the company.

According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

The best option to describe where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services is the dark web. The dark web is an anonymous, untraceable part of the internet where a variety of illicit activities take place, including the purchase of DDoS and ransomware services. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, attackers can purchase these services anonymously and without the risk of detection or attribution. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations monitor the dark web to detect any possible threats or malicious activity.

The correct order of evidence from most to least volatile in forensic analysis is based on how quickly the evidence can be lost or altered if not collected or preserved properly. CPU cache is the most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in a small amount of memory on the processor and can be overwritten or erased very quickly. Memory is the next most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in RAM and can be lost when the system is powered off or rebooted. Temporary filesystems are less volatile than memory because they are stored on disk, but they can still be deleted or overwritten by other processes or users. Disk is the least volatile type of evidence because it is stored on permanent storage devices and can be recovered even after deletion or formatting, unless overwritten by new data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-volatility-in-digital -forensics

Customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements should be concerned with weak configurations when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects. Weak configurations can lead to security vulnerabilities, which can be exploited by malicious actors. It is important to ensure that all configurations are secure and up-to-date in order to protect sensitive data. Source: UL

Round-robin is a type of load balancing algorithm that distributes traffic to a list of servers in rotation. It is a static algorithm that does not take into account the state of the system for the distribution of tasks. It assumes that all servers have equal capacity and can handle an equal amount of traffic.

A log collector can collect logs from various sources, such as servers, devices, applications, or network components, and forward them to a central source for analysis and storage23.

This option is the most likely reason for preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS. The MRI scanner is a complex and sensitive device that requires a specific OS to control and operate it. The MRI vendor may not have developed or tested newer versions of the OS for compatibility and functionality with the scanner. Upgrading the OS without the vendor’s support may cause the scanner to malfunction or stop working altogether.

A vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan devices and systems for known vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance issues. By loading the current baselines into the scanner, the organization can compare the actual state of the new laptops with the desired state and identify any deviations or weaknesses. This is a quick and automated way to assess the hardening of the new laptops.

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence

SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

Badges are physical security controls that provide a way to identify and authenticate authorized individuals who need to access a building or a restricted area. Badges can also be used to track the entry and exit times of people and monitor their movements within the premises. Badges can help deter unauthorized access by requiring people to present a valid credential before entering or leaving the office. Badges can also help prevent tailgating, which is when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a door or gate. Badges can be integrated with other security systems, such as locks, alarms, cameras, or biometrics, to enhance the level of protection.

SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet. References:

• https://www.globalscape.com/solutions/secure-file-transfer
• https://www.jscape.com/blog/how-to-securely-transfer-large-files-over-the-internet

A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.

QUESTIO NO: 399

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:

• https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
• https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html

Network access restrictions can limit the exposure of systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement, as they can prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to those systems from other devices or networks. Network access restrictions can include firewalls, network segmentation, VPNs, access control lists, and other methods that can filter or block traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Network access restrictions can reduce the security risks introduced by running systems that have expired vendor support, as they can mitigate the impact of potential vulnerabilities or exploits that may affect those systems. Verified References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 3.0 https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf (See Domain 2.1: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Study Guide https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/10/CompTIA-Security-SY0-501-Study-Guide.pdf (See Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, Section 2.5: Firewall and Network Security Appliances.)

S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:

• Cryptography Concepts – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.8 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/ (See S/MIME)
• Mail Encryption - CompTIA Security+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Exam SY0-301) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9780071771474/sec5_chap14.html (See S/MIME)
• Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 6.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/symmetric-and-asymmetric-encryption/ (See S/MIME)

Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/incident-response

https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats

 VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

Code signing is a cryptographic process that allows software developers to digitally sign their code. This ensures that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed and that it came from a trusted source.

Testing input validation on the user input fields is important for preventing malicious code from being entered into a system. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Performing static code analysis on the software can help to identify security vulnerabilities. However, it cannot guarantee that the code has not been tampered with.

Ensuring secure cookies are used is important for preventing unauthorized access to user data. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Therefore, the most appropriate option to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company is to perform code signing on the software.

Here are some additional benefits of code signing:

• It can help to prevent malware from being installed on users' computers.
• It can help to protect intellectual property.
• It can help to improve user trust.

PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line shell that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems. PowerShell can also be used by malware to execute malicious commands and evade detection. The code snippet in the question is a PowerShell command that creates a new partition on disk 2, formats it with NTFS file system, and assigns it a drive letter C. This could be part of an attack that wipes out the original data on the disk or creates a hidden partition for storing malware or stolen data. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/scripting-and-automation/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/storage/new-partition?view=windowsserver2022-ps

This command creates an inbound access list that denies any IP traffic from the source IP address of 10.1.4.9/32 to any destination IP address (0.0.0.0/0). It blocks the originating source of malicious traffic from accessing the organization’s network. 

Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-2-secure-code-design-and-implementation/privilege-escalation

Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only be granted the permissions they need to do their job. This helps to protect against malware infections by preventing users from installing unauthorized software.

A host-based firewall can help to protect against malware infections by blocking malicious traffic from reaching a computer. However, it cannot prevent a user from installing malware if they have the necessary permissions.

System isolation is the practice of isolating systems from each other to prevent malware from spreading. This can be done by using virtual machines or network segmentation. However, system isolation can be complex and expensive to implement.

An application allow list is a list of applications that are allowed to run on a computer. This can help to prevent malware infections by preventing users from running unauthorized applications. However, an application allow list can be difficult to maintain and can block legitimate applications.

Therefore, the best way to protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system is to use the principle of least privilege. This will help to ensure that users only have the permissions they need to do their job, which will reduce the risk of malware infections.

Here are some additional benefits of least privilege:

• It can help to improve security by reducing the attack surface.
• It can help to simplify security management by reducing the number of permissions that need to be managed.
• It can help to improve compliance by reducing the risk of data breaches.

A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc.  It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. 

Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.

https://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/imprint_downloads/pearsonitcertification/bookreg/9780136798675/9780136798675_tea rcard.pdf

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg

Mimikatz is a tool that can extract plaintext credentials from memory on Windows systems. A malicious flash drive can bypass the GPO blocking the flash drives by using techniques such as autorun.inf or HID spoofing to execute Mimikatz on the target system without user interaction or consent. This can cause AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems and also reduce the storage capacity of the flash drives to only 512KB by creating hidden partitions or files on them. 

Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

Directory traversal is a type of web application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability in the web server or application to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope or root directory. It can allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the target system by using special characters such as …/ or %2e%2e/ to manipulate the path or URL. In this case, the attacker used …/ to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. 

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users. This is accomplished by overwhelming the target with a flood of traffic from multiple sources.

In the scenario described, the security analyst identified a source IP address and blocked it from communicating with the network. However, the attack was still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. This indicates that the attack was a DDoS attack.

Privilege escalation is an attack that allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. DNS poisoning is an attack that modifies the DNS records for a domain name, causing users to be redirected to a malicious website. A buffer overflow is an attack that occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer than it is designed to hold.

Therefore, the most likely type of attack in the scenario described is a DDoS attack.

Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.

The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.

Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.

Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:

• DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
• DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
• There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:

• https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls
• https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments. 

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks. 

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:

• Data Loss Prevention Guide to Blocking Leaks - CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/data-loss-prevention-a-step-by-step-guide-to-blocking-leaks
• Data Loss Prevention – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/
• Data Loss Prevention – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/data-loss-prevention-3/

Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
• https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/research/wp-content/uploads/2018/01/security_homomorphic_encryption_white_paper.pdf
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-cryptography/

A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked. 

Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.

Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

Wireless Access Point

Network Mode – G only

Wireless Channel – 11

Wireless SSID Broadcast – disable

Security settings – WPA2 Professional

Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company

 A dump file is a file that contains the contents of memory at a specific point in time. It can be used for debugging or forensic analysis of a system or an application. It can reveal what was in the memory on the compromised server, such as processes, variables, passwords, encryption keys, etc.

Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities. Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.

https://www.cctvcameraworld.com/setup-ip-camera-sys tem-on-network/

Corrective controls are security measures that are implemented after an incident to repair the damage and restore normal operations. They can include actions such as patching systems, restoring backups, removing malware, etc. An organization that is repairing damage after an incident is implementing corrective controls. 

Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution. 

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can protect the data transmitted between the website and the visitors from eavesdropping, tampering, etc. It is the most secure protocol to implement for a website that sells products online using a credit card.

GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:

• https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/
• https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/key-definitions/what-is-personal-data/

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an attacker sends more data than a buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations such as registers. It can allow an attacker to overwrite a register with a malicious address that changes the execution path and executes arbitrary code on the target system

WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:

• Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall)
• Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)

Containment is an incident response strategy that aims to isolate and prevent the spread of an attack or compromise within a network or system. It can resolve the issue of unauthorized software detected on a small number of machines in a lab as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers by stopping the software from communicating with external sources using HTTPS and SMS and preventing it from infecting additional machines outside of the lab

Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.