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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 326 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Question 2

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

Question 3

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

Question 4

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

Question 5

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Question 6

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

Question 7

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

Options:

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

Question 8

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

Question 9

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

Question 10

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Question 11

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Question 12

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

Options:

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

Question 13

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

Options:

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

Question 14

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Question 15

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question 16

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

Options:

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

Question 17

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Cloud Detection and Response (CDR) in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Detect and respond to security threats in the cloud

B.

Manage cloud-based applications

C.

Provide cost management for cloud services

D.

Optimize cloud storage performance

Question 18

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 19

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

Question 20

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Options:

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

Question 21

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

Options:

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

Question 22

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

Question 23

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

Question 24

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 25

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

Question 26

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Options:

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

Question 27

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

Options:

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

Question 28

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

Question 29

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

Options:

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

Question 30

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Options:

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

Question 31

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 32

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 33

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

Options:

A.

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

B.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

C.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

D.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

E.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

Question 34

What is a common characteristic of Platform as a Service (PaaS)?

Options:

A.

Satisfies compliance and security requirements

B.

Integration with application development frameworks and middleware capabilities

C.

Limited configuration options increases security risks

D.

Fully hosted application stack

Question 35

Which of the following is a common risk factor related to misconfiguration and inadequate change control in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Failure to update access controls after employee role changes

B.

Lack of sensitive data encryption

C.

Lack of 3rd party service provider specialized in patch management procedures

D.

Excessive SBOM focus

Question 36

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

Question 37

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Question 38

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

Question 39

When leveraging a cloud provider, what should be considered to ensure application security requirements are met?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on cloud provider's security features

B.

Cloud providers guarantee complete security compliance

C.

Assume default settings are adequate for all applications

D.

Customize additional security measures to address gaps

Question 40

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

Question 41

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

Question 42

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

Question 43

What is a core tenant of risk management?

Options:

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

Question 44

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

Options:

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

Question 45

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Question 46

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 47

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

Options:

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

Question 48

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Question 49

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

Options:

A.

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

Question 50

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Question 51

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

Question 52

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

Options:

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

Question 53

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

Question 54

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

Question 55

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

Question 56

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

Options:

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

Question 57

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

Options:

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

Question 58

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 59

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question 60

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

Question 61

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

Question 62

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Question 63

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

Question 64

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

Options:

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Question 65

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

Question 66

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

Options:

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

Question 67

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

Question 68

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

Question 69

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Question 70

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Question 71

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

Options:

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

Question 72

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

Question 73

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Question 74

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Question 75

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

Options:

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

Question 76

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

Options:

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

Question 77

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Question 78

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Question 79

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

Options:

A.

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

Question 80

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

Options:

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

Question 81

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

Question 82

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 83

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

Question 84

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 85

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

Question 86

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Question 87

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

Question 88

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 89

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 90

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 91

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

Question 92

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question 93

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

Question 94

Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

Options:

A.

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

C.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

Question 95

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Question 96

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 97

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Total 326 questions