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Cisco 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Exam Practice Test

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Total 594 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Users report issues with reachability between areas as soon as an engineer configured summary routes between areas in a multiple area OSPF autonomous system. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the summary-address command on the ASBR.

B.

Configure the summary-address command on the ABR.

C.

Configure the area range command on the ABR.

D.

Configure the area range command on the ASBR.

Question 2

A newly installed spoke router is configured for DMVPN with the ip mtu 1400 command. Which configuration allows the spoke to use fragmentation with the maximum negotiated TCP MTU over GRE?

Options:

A.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

B.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

C.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

D.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

Question 3

What action is performed for untagged outgoing labels in an MPLS router?

Options:

A.

Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an untagged packet and then do a FIB lookup

B.

Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an untagged packet and then do a RIB lookup.

C.

Convert the untagged packet to a labeled packet and forward it to the next router

D.

Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an IP packet and forward it to the next router.

Question 4

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a per VRF for TACACS+ for company A. Which configuration on RTG-1 accomplishes the task?

Question # 4

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 5

:579

Question # 5

Refer to the exhibit. Router ABR-Rtr is not propagating the internet routes in OSPF area 10. which causes internet reachability problems in the area. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ABR-Rtr must configure the default-information originate always command.

B.

ABR-Rtr must configure the area 10 stub no-summary command.

C.

ABR-Rtr network type must be broadcast network.

D.

ABR-Rtr must advertise the 0.0.0.0/0 default route in area 10.

Question 6

Question # 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

Question # 6

B)

Question # 6

C)

Question # 6

D)

Question # 6

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 7

Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured routers R1 and R2 with MP-BGP. The engineer noticed that the routers cannot exchange any IPv6 routes, however, the IPv4 neighbor relationship is working fine. Which configuration must the engineer apply to router R2 to exchange IPv6 routes?

Options:

A.

Ipv6cef I Interface Loopback100Ipv6 address 2001: DB8:128::2/128 Interface GigabitEthernet1/0Ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 I router bgp 65002no bgp default ipv4-unlcastneighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 emote-as 65001Iaddress-family ipv6network 2001:DB8:128::2/128neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

B.

Ipv6 unicast-routingipv6 cefInterface Loopback100ipv6 address 2001: DB8:12C:2 129Iinterface GigabitEthernet1/0ipv6 address 2001: DB8:1::2 64description AS65001 ID B466:A83D:3D7::1!router bgp 65002no bgp default Ipv4-unicastneighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001!address-family Ipv4neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

C.

Ipv6 unicast-routingipvG cefIInterface Loopback100Ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 I interface GigabitEthernet1/0ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64!router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 !address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2I128

D.

Ipv6 unicast-routing Ipv6 cef Iinterface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001: DB8:128::2/128 !interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 irouter bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 !address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2/128 neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 8

R1 is configured with IP SLA to check the availability of the server behind R6 but it kept failing. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip sla 700R1(config-track)# delay down 30 up 20

B.

R1(config)# ip sla 700R1(config-track)# delay down 20 up 30

C.

R1(config)# track 700 ip sla 700R1(config-track)# delay down 30 up 20

D.

R1(config)# track 700 ip sla 700R1(config-track)# delay down 20 up 30

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 9

After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers.

B.

Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process.

C.

Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes.

D.

Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0.0 from the network.

Question 10

Question # 10

Question # 10

Refer to me exhibit Traffic from R3 to the central site does not use alternate paths when R3 cannot reach 10 10 10 2 Traffic on R3 destined to R4 takes an alternate route via 10 10 10.6 when 10 10 10 4 is not accessible from R3 Which configuration switches traffic destined to 10 10 10 2 from R3 on the alternate path’’

Options:

A.

R3(config)#ip route 192.168.10.1 255.255.265.255 10.10.10.2 track 20

B.

R2(config)#ip route 10.10 10 3 255 255.255 255 10.0.0.6

C.

R3(config)#track( 20 ip sla 20 reachability

D.

R6(config)#ip route 10.10.10 3 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.30

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 11

The control plane is heavily impacted after the CoPP configuration is applied to the router. Which command removal lessens the impact on the control plane?

Options:

A.

access-list 120 permit udp any any eq pim-auto-rp

B.

access-list 120 permit eigrp any host 224.0.0.10

C.

access-list 120 permit ospf any

D.

access-list 120 permit tcp any gt 1024 eq bgp log

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 12

While monitoring VTY access to a router, an engineer notices that the router does not have any filter and anyone can access the router with username and password even though an ACL is configured.

Which command resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

access-class INTERNET in

B.

ip access-group INTERNET in

C.

ipv6 traffic-filter INTERNET in

D.

ipv6 access-class INTERNET in

Question 13

Which control plane process allows the MPLS forwarding state to recover when a secondary RP takes over from a failed primary RP?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP uses control plane services for label prefix bindings in the MPLS forwarding table

B.

LSP uses NSF to recover from disruption *i control plane service

C.

FEC uses a control plane service to distribute information between primary and secondary processors

D.

LDP uses SSO to recover from disruption in control plane service

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 14

An engineer has configured policy-based routing and applied the configured to the correct interface. How is the configuration applied to the traffic that matches the access list?

Options:

A.

It is sent to 209.165.202.131.

B.

It is sent to 209.165.202.129.

C.

It is dropped.

D.

It is forwarded using the routing table lookup.

Question 15

:593

Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations are required on R2 to prevent a routing loop caused by the redistribution from OSPF back into EIGRP? (Choose two.)

Question # 15

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 16

The network administrator configured R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using TACACS+. ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1(192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.

Question # 16

The administrator cannot authenticate to R1 based on ISE. Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

ip tacacs-server host 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123

B.

line vty 0 4login authentication TAC-SERV

C.

line vty 0 4login authentication telnet

D.

tacacs-server host 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123

Question 17

What is a MPLS PHP label operation?

Options:

A.

Downstream node signals to remove the label.

B.

It improves P router performance by not performing multiple label lookup.

C.

It uses implicit-NULL for traffic congestion from source to destination forwarding

D.

PE removes the outer label before sending to the P router.

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 18

An engineer must configure EIGRP between R1 and R2 with no summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

Question # 18

B)

Question # 18

C)

Question # 18

D)

Question # 18

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 19

What are two characteristics of a VRF instance? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It is defined by the VPN membership of a customer site attached to a P device.

B.

Each VRF has a different set of routing and CEF tables.

C.

AII VRFS share customers routing and CEF tables.

D.

An interface must be associated to one VRF

E.

A customer site can be associated to different VRFs.

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 20

A network administrator notices these console messages from host 10.11.110.12 originating from interface E1/0. The administrator considers this an unauthorized attempt to access SNMP on R1. Which action prevents the attempts to reach R1 E1/0?

Options:

A.

Configure IOS control plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

B.

Configure IOS management plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

C.

Create an inbound ACL on interface E1/0 to deny SNMP from host 10.11.110.12

D.

Add a permit statement including the host 10.11.110.12 into ACL 90

Question 21

:583

Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is directly connected to R2 over network 10.100.14.0/24. An engineer configures R1 to advertise a static route that is connected to a local loopback for network 10.100.13.0/24. The network is not in the routing table of R2. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

The redistribution command isincorrect on R1 The default metric metric 200 should be inducted with the redistribution command.

B.

The Loopback interface on R1 is administratively down The interface should be enabled with the no shutdown command

C.

R2 must use a different OSPF process number and should be changed lo ospf 1 to match R1

D.

The redistribution command is incorrect on R1 The keyword subnets should be included with the redistribution command

Question 22

Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit. The engineer is getting an error when trying to transfer a new IOS file to the router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Delete some files on the router flash memory.

B.

Delete some files on the router NVRAM.

C.

Remove any access-list filtering the TFTP file transfer.

D.

Split the file into parts to transfer them one by one.

Question 23

How is the LDP router ID used in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

The MPLS LOP router ID must match the IGP router ID.

B.

If not configured, the operational physical interface is chosen as the router ID oven d a loopback is configured.

C.

The loopback with the highest IP address is selected as the router ID

D.

The force keyword changes the router ID to the speeded address without causing any impact.

Question 24

What is the function of BFD?

Options:

A.

It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type.

B.

It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.

C.

It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs.

D.

It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type.

Question 25

What is a function of IPv6 Source Guard?

Options:

A.

It works with address glean or ND to find existing addresses.

B.

It inspects ND and DHCP packets to build an address binding table.

C.

It denies traffic from known sources and allocated addresses.

D.

It notifies the ND protocol to inform hosts if the traffic is denied by it.

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 26

A network administrator successfully logs in to a switch using SSH from a (RADIUS server When the network administrator uses a console port to access the switch the RADIUS server returns shell:priv-lvl=15’’ and the switch asks to enter the enable command \ the command is entered, it gets rejected. Which command set is used to troubleshoot and reserve this issue?

Options:

A.

line con 0aaa authorization consoleauthorization exec!line vty 0 4transport input ssh

B.

line con 0aaa authorization console!line vty 0 4authorization exec

C.

line con 0aaa authorization console priv15!line vty 0 4authorization exec

D.

line con 0aaa authorization consoleauthorization priv15!line vty 0 4transport input ssh

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 27

A network engineer must establish communication between three different customer sites with these requirements:

Site-A: must be restricted to access to any users at Site-B or Site-C.

Site-B and Site-C must be able to communicate between sites and share routes using OSPF.

Question # 27

Which configuration meets the requirements?

Question # 27

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 28

What does the MP-BGP OPEN message contain?

Options:

A.

MPLS labels and the IP address of the router that receives the message

B.

the version number and the AS number to which the router belongs

C.

IP routing information and the AS number to which the router belongs

D.

NLRI, path attributes, and IP addresses of the sending and receiving routers

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 29

An engineer must block access to the console ports for all corporate remote Cisco devices based on the recent corporate security policy but the security team stilt can connect through the console port. Which configuration on the console port resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

login and password

C.

no exec

D.

exec 0.0

Question 30

How does LDP operate in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

When topology changes occur such as a router failure, LDP generates peer discovery messages that terminate the LDP season to propagate an LSP change.

B.

When an adjacent LSR receives LDP discovery messages. TCP two-way handshake ensures that the LDP session has unidirectional connectivity.

C.

Peer routers establish the LDP session, and the LDP neighbors maintain and terminate the session by exchanging messages

D.

LDP notification messages allow LERs to exchange label information to determine the next hops within a particular LSP.

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 31

The R1 OSPF neighbor is not receiving type 5 external LSAs for 132.108.2.0/24 and 132.108.3.0/24 networks. Which configuration command resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.0.0 0.0.1.255

B.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.0.0 0.0.3.255

C.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.2.0 0.0.0.255

D.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.4.0 0.0.3.255

Question 32

Drag and drop the ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages from the left onto the correct packet types on the right.

Question # 32

Options:

Question 33

Which two protocols are used by a P router to transfer VPN traffic between PE routers in an MPLS network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

OSPF

C.

MP-BGP

D.

LDP

E.

RSVP

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 34

An administrator configures a router to stop using a particular default route if the DNS server 8.8.8.8 is not reachable through that route. However, this configuration did not work as desired and the default route still works even if the DNS server 8.8.8 8 is unreachable. Which two configuration changes resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure two static routes for the 8.8.8.8/32 destination to match the IP SLA probe for each ISP.

B.

Associate every IP SLA probe with the proper WAN address of the router.

C.

Reference the proper exit interfaces along with the next hops in both static default routes.

D.

Use a separate track object to reference the existing IP SLA 1 probe for every static route.

E.

Use a separate IP SLA probe and track object for every static route

Question 35

Question # 35

Question # 35

Question # 35

Options:

Question 36

Which rouler takes an active role between two LDP neighbors when initiating LDP session negotiation and LDP TCP connection establishment?

Options:

A.

with the higher IP address

B.

with the larger number of LDP TCP neighbors

C.

with the lowest IP address

D.

with one interface in the MPLS backbone

Question 37

Question # 37

Question # 37

Options:

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 38

The none area 0 routers in OSPF still receive more specific routes of 10.1.1.0.10.1.2.0.10.1.3.0 from area 0. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure route summarization on OSPF-enabled interfaces.

B.

Summarize by using the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command.

C.

Summarize by using the area range command on ABRs

D.

Configure the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command under OSPF process.

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 39

A network administrator is troubleshooting IPv6 address assignment for a DHCP client that is not getting an IPv6 address from the server.

Which configuration retrieves the client IPv6 address from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address autoconfig command on the interface

B.

ipv6 dhcp server automatic command on DHCP server

C.

ipv6 dhcp relay-agent command on the interface

D.

service dhcp command on DHCP server

Question 40

Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer receives a report that Spoke 1 users can perform bank transactions with the server located at the Center site, but Spoke 2 users cannot. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the Spoke 2 users IP on the router B OSPF domain

B.

Configure encapsulation dot1q 78 on the router C interface.

C.

Configure IPv6 on the routers B and C interfaces

D.

Configure OSPFv2 on the routers B and C interfaces

Question 41

The summary route is not shown in the RouterB routing table after this below configuration on Router_A

Question # 41.

Which Router_A configuration resolves the issue by advertising the summary route to Router B?

Question # 41

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 42

A customer reports that user traffic of bank XYZ to the AAA server is not using the primary path via the R3-R2 link. The network team observes:

No fiber is cut on links R2 and R3.

As101 and AS 201 routers established BGP peering.

Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

Question # 42

B)

Question # 42

C)

Question # 42

D)

Question # 42

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 43

The network administrator configured CoPP so that all HTTP and HTTPS traffic from the administrator device located at 172.16 1.99 toward the router CPU is limited to 500 kbps. Any traffic that exceeds this limit must be dropped.

access-list 100 permit ip host 172.16.1.99 any

!

class-map CM-ADMIN

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-ADMIN

police 500000 conform-action transmit

!

interface E0/0

service-policy input PM-COPP

CoPP failed to capture the desired traffic and the CPU load is getting higher.

Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

interface E0/0no service-policy input PM-COPP!control-planeservice-policy input PM-COPP

B.

policy-map PM-COPPclass CM-ADMINno police 500000 conform-action transmitpolice 500 conform-action transmit!control-planeservice-policy input PM-COPP

C.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 80

D.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 80access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 443

E.

policy-map PM-COPPclass CM-ADMINno police 500000 conform-action transmitpolice 500 conform-action transmit

Question 44

A network administrator is troubleshooting a high utilization issue on the route processor of a router that was reported by NMS The administrator logged into the router to check the control plane policing and observed that the BGP process is dropping a high number of routing packets and causing thousands of routes to recalculate frequently. Which solution resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Police the cir for BGP, conform-action transmit, and exceed action transmit.

B.

Shape the pir for BGP, conform-action set-prec-transmit, and exceed action set-frde-transmit.

C.

Shape the cir for BGP. conform-action transmit, and exceed action transmit.

D.

Police the pir for BGP, conform-action set-prec-transmit, and exceed action set-clp-transmit.

Question 45

The network administrator configured CoPP so that all routing protocol traffic toward the router CPU is

limited to 1 mbps. All traffic that exceeds

this limit must be dropped. The router is running BGP and OSPF Management traffic for Telnet and SSH

must be limited to 500kbps.

access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179

access-list 100 permit tcp any any range 22 23

access-list 100 permit ospf any any

!

class-map CM-ROUTING

match access-group 100

class-map CM-MGMT

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-ROUTING

police 1000000 conform-action transmit

class CM-MGMT

police 500000 conform-action transmit

!

control-plane

service-policy output PM-COPP

No traffic is filtering through CoPP,which is resulting in high CPU utilization,which configuration resolves

the issue ?

Options:

A.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit ospf any anyaccess-list 101 Permit tcp any any range 22 23!class-map CM-MGMTno match access-group 100match access-group 101

B.

control-planeno service-policy output PM-COPPservice-policy input PM-COPP

C.

No access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit tcp any any range eq 22access-list 100 permit tcp any any range eq 23access-list 100 permit ospf any any

D.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit ospf any anyaccess-list 101 Permit tcp any any range 22 23!class-map CM-MGMTno match access-group 100match access-group 101!control-planeno service-policy output PM-COPPservice-policy input PM-COPP

Question 46

Question # 46

Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit SW100 cannot receive routes from R1 Which configuration resolves the issue?

Question # 46

Question # 46

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option C

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 47

An administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel to establish an EIGRP neighbor to a remote router. The

other tunnel endpoint is already configured. After applying the configuration as shown, the tunnel

started flapping. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the network command to use the Tunnel0 interface netmask

B.

Advertise the Loopback0 interface from R2 across the tunnel

C.

Stop sending a route matching the tunnel destination across the tunnel

D.

Readdress the IP network on the Tunnel0 on both routers using the /31 netmask

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 48

Which set of commands restore reachability to loopback0?

A)

Question # 48

B)

Question # 48

C)

Question # 48

D)

Question # 48

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 49

A junior engineer configured SNMP to network devices. Malicious users have uploaded different configurations to the network devices using SNMP and TFTP servers.

Which configuration prevents changes from unauthorized NMS and TFTP servers?

Options:

A.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log!snmp-server group NETVIEW v3 priv read NETVIEW access 20snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 20snmp-server community Cisc0Us3r RO 20snmp-server community Cisc0wrus3r RW 20snmp-server tftp-server-list 20

B.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log!snmp-server group NETVIEW v3 priv read NETVIEW access 20snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 20snmp-server community Cisc0wrus3r RO 20snmp-server community Cisc0Us3r RW 20snmp-server tftp-server-list 20

C.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log

D.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11

Question 50

What must a network architect consider for RTs when planning for a single customer full-mesh VPN m an MPLS Layer 3 network?

Options:

A.

RT must be globally unique within the same VPN

B.

RT must be globally identical within the same VPN

C.

RT values must be Afferent from the RD values in the same VPN

D.

Each RT value must be identical to an RD value within the same VPN.

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 51

An engineer is trying to connect to R1 via Telnet with no success. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Question # 51

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 52

A company Is redesigning WAN infrastructure so that all branch sites must communicate via the head office and the head office can directly communicate with each site independently. The network engineer must configure the head office router by considering zero-touch technology when adding new sites in the same WAN infrastructure. Which configuration must be applied to the head office router to meet this requirement?

Question # 52

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 53

An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of

10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing

Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then

normal forwarding must occur. Which

configuration meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

access-list 100 permit ip any any!route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1

B.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!Route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1

C.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1!route map POLICY permit 20

D.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!route map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1!route-map POLICY permit 20

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 54

An engineer configures DMVPN and receives the hub location prefix of 10.1.1.0724 on R2 and R3 The R3 prefix of 10 1.3.0/24 is not received on R2. and the R2 prefix 10.1,2.0/24 is not received on R3. Which action reserves the issue?

Options:

A.

Split horizon prevents the routes from being advertised between spoke routers it should be disabled with the command no ip split-horizon eigrp 10 on the tunnel interface of R1

B.

There is no spoke-to-spoke connection DMVPN configuration should be modified to enable a tunnel connection between R2 and R3 and neighbor relationship confirmed by use of the show ip eigrp neighbor command

C.

Split horizon prevents the routes from being advertised between spoke routers it should be disabled with the no ip split-horizon eigrp 10 command on the Gi0/0 interface of R1.

D.

There is no spoke-to-spoke connection DMVPN configuration should be modified with a manual neighbor relationship configured between R2 and R3 and confirmed bb use of the show ip eigrp neighbor command.

Question 55

:589

Aswitchhas been configured to provide DHCP relay on VLAN 100 to a server with an IP address of 10.1.1.1. The DHCP server is sending syslog reports of multiple TFTP requests that also originate from the switch. As a result, the server CPU exceeded a configured threshold. Which action does the network administrator recommend to bring the server CPU threshold down?

Options:

A.

Configure the switch with an access list on VLAN100 to deny TFTP.

B.

Configure the switch with a VACL on VLAN100 to deny TFTP.

C.

Configure the switch with ip forward-protocol udp 67 globally.

D.

Configure the switch with no ip forward-protocol udp 69 on VLAN100.

Question 56

How is a preshared key "Test’’ for all the remote VPN rooters configured In a DMVPN using GRE over IPsec set up?

Options:

A.

authentication pre-share Test address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

B.

set pre-share Test address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C.

crypto Ipsec key Test address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

D.

crypto isakmp key Test address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

Question 57

A network administrator successfully established a DMVPN tunnel with one hub and two spokes using EIGRP. One of the requirements was to enable spoke-to-spoke tunnels through the hub router using EIGRP. Which configuration command must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

no ip eigrp 1 mode multipoint

B.

no ip eigrp 1 split-horizon

C.

no ip eigrp 1 tunnel-redirect

D.

no ip eigrp 1 mode mgre

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 58

Which command must be configured to make VRF CCNP work?

Options:

A.

interface Loopback0vrf forwarding CCNP

B.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

C.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0vrf forwarding CCNP

D.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0ip vrf forwarding CCNP

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 59

An engineer implemented CoPP to limit Telnet traffic to protect the router CPU. It was noticed that the Telnet traffic did not pass through CoPP Which configuration resolves the issue?

Question # 59

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 60

Question # 60

Refer to the exhibit. The company implemented uRPF to address an antispoofing attack. A network engineer received a call from the IT security department that the regional data center is under an IP attack Which configuration must be implemented on R1 to resolve this issue?

Question # 60

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 61

A network administrator is tasked to permit http and https traffic only toward the internet from the User1 laptop to adhere to company’s security policy. The administrator can still ping to www.cisco.com Which interface should the access list 101 be applied to resolve this issue?

Question # 61

Options:

A.

Interface G0/48 in the incoming direction

B.

Interface G0/0 in the outgoing direction.

C.

Interface S1/0 in the outgoing direction.

D.

Interface G0/0 in the incoming direction.

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 62

To provide reachability to network 10.1.1.0 /24 from R5, the network administrator redistributes EIGRP into OSPF on R3 but notices that R4 is now taking a ........... path through R5 to reach 10.1.1.0/24 network. Which action fixes the issue while keeping the reachability from R5 to 10.1.1.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

Change the administrative distance of the external EIGRP to 90.

B.

Apply the outbound distribution list on R5 toward R4 in OSPF.

C.

Change the administrative distance of OSPF to 200 on R5.

D.

Redistribute OSPF into EIGRP on R4

Question 63

Which Ipv6 first-hop security feature helps to minimize denial of service attacks?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

DHCPv6 Guard

D.

IPv6 MAC address filtering

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 64

A network administrator logs into the router using TACACS+ username and password credentials, but the administrator cannot run any privileged commands Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure TACACS+ synchronization with the Active Directory admin group

B.

Configure the username from a local database

C.

Configure full access for the username from TACACS+ server

D.

Configure an authorized IP address for this user to access this router

Question 65

Which two protocols work in the control plane of P routers across the MPLS cloud? (choose two)

Options:

A.

LSP

B.

RSVP

C.

ECMP

D.

LDP

E.

MPLS OAM

Question 66

What statement about route distinguishes in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishes are used for label bindings

D.

Route distinguishes define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 67

Question # 67

The administrator can see the traps for the failed login attempts, but cannot see the traps of successful login attempts. What command is needed to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure logging history 2

B.

Configure logging history 3

C.

Configure logging history 4

D.

Configure logging history 5

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 68

BGP and EIGRP are mutually redistributed on R3, and EIGRP and OSPF are mutually redistributed on R1. Users report packet loss and interruption of service to applications hosted onthe 10.1.1.0724 prefix. An engineer tested the link from R3 to R4 with no packet loss present but has noticed frequent routing changes on R3 when running the debug ip route command. Which action stabilizes the service?

Options:

A.

Tag the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix and deny the prefix from being redistributed into OSPF on R1.

B.

Repeat the test from R4 using ICMP ping on the local 10.1.1.0/24 prefix, and fix any Layer 2 errors on the host or switch side of the subnet. ^ C. Place an OSPF distribute-list outbound on R3 to block the 10.1.10/24 prefix from being advertised back to R3.

C.

Reduce frequent OSPF SPF calculations on R3 that cause a high CPU and packet loss on traffic traversing R3.

Question 69

Which feature drops packets if the source address is not found in the snooping table?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Source Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

Binding Table Recovery

Question 70

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 70

The neighbor relationship is not coming up Which two configurations bring the adjacency up? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NYrouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

B.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123

C.

NYinterface E 0/0no ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

D.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

E.

LArouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

Question 71

Which configuration feature should be used to block rogue router advertisements instead of using the IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature?

Options:

A.

VACL blocking broadcast frames from nonauthorized hosts

B.

PVLANs with promiscuous ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

C.

PVLANs with community ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

D.

IPv4 ACL blocking route advertisements from nonauthorized hosts

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 72

Which interface configuration must be configured on the HUB router to enable MVPN with mGRE mode?

Question # 72

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 73

Refer to Exhibit:

Question # 73

Question # 73

AS 111 wanted to use AS 200 as the preferred path for 172.20.5.0/24 and AS 100 as the backup. After the configuration, AS 100 is not used for any other routes. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

route-mmap SETLP permit 10match ip address prefix-list PLIST1set local-preference 99route-map SETLP permit 20

B.

route-map SETLP permit 10match ip address prefix-list PLIST1set local-preference 110route-map SETLP permit 20

C.

router bgp 111no neighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP inneighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP out

D.

router bap 111no neighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP inneighbor 192.168.20.2 route-map SE TLP in

Question 74

A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it will be the designated router?

Options:

A.

tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr

B.

OSPF priority to 0

C.

route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110

D.

OSPF priority greater than 1

Question 75

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 75

A network administrator added one router in the Cisco DNA Center and checked its discovery and health from the Network Health Dashboard. The network administrator observed that the router is still showing up as unmonitored. What must be configured on the router to mount it in the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

Configure router with NetFlow data

B.

Configure router with the telemetry data

C.

Configure router with routing to reach Cisco DNA Center

D.

Configure router with SNMPv2c or SNMPv3 traps

Question 76

An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table Which interface configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via 12-src

Question 77

Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has successfully set up a floating static route from the BRANCH router to the HQ network using HQ_R1 as the primary default gateway When the g0/0 goes down on HQ_R1, the branch network cannot reach the HQ network 192.168.20.0/24. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R3(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R3(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 192.168.100.2

C.

HQ R3(config)# Ip sla responderHQ R3(config)# Ip sla responder Icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# Ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sta)# Icmp-echo 192.168.100.1

Question 78

Question # 78

Refer to the exhibit. Which action restores the routes from neighbors while still filtering 1.1.1.0/24?

Options:

A.

Add a second line in the access list to permit any.

B.

Modify the route map to permit the access list instead of deny it

C.

Modify the access list to deny instead of permit it.

D.

Add a second sequence in the route map permit 20

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 79

R1 is being monitored using SNMP and monitoring devices are getting only partial information. What action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured exceeded limit for SNMP.

B.

Modify the access list to include snmptrap.

C.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured CIR limit for SNMP.

D.

Modify the access list to add a second line to allow udp any any eq snmp

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 80

A user cannot SSH to the router. What action must be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh

B.

Configure transport output ssh

C.

Configure ip ssh version 2

D.

Configure ip ssh source-interface loopback0

Question 81

Refer to the exhibits.

Question # 81

When DMVPN is configured, which configuration allows spoke-to-spoke communication using loopback as a tunnel source?

Options:

A.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on the hub.

B.

Configure crypto isakmp key Cisco address 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 on the hub.

C.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 on the spokes.

D.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on the spokes.

Question 82

An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

BOOTP port 67

B.

DHCP option 66

C.

BOOTP port 68

D.

DHCP option 69

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 83

A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return frame only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

Question # 83

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 84

When determining if a system is capable of support, what is the minimum time spacing required for a BFD control packet to receive once a control packet is arrived?

Options:

A.

Desired Min TX Interval

B.

Detect Mult

C.

Required Min RX Interval

D.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 85

Which action resolves the failed authentication attempt to the router?

Options:

A.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line vty 0 4

B.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line console 0

C.

Configure aaa authorization console global command

D.

Configure aaa authorization console command on line vty 0 4

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 86

The Math and Science departments connect through the corporate. IT router but users in the Math department must not be able to reach the Science department and vice versa Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

vrf definition Science!interface E 0/2ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0no shut!interface E 0/3ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0no shut

B.

vrf definition Scienceaddress-family ipv4!interface E 0/2ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0vrf forwarding Scienceno shut!interface E 0/3ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0vrf forwarding Scienceno shut

C.

vrf definition Scienceaddress-family ipv4!interface E 0/2ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0no shut!interface E 0/3ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0no shut

D.

vrf definition Scienceaddress-family ipv4!interface E 0/2vrf forwarding Scienceip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0no shut!interface E 0/3vrf forwarding Scienceip address 192.168.2.1

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 87

An engineer receives this error message when trying to access another router in-band from the serial interface connected to the console of R1. Which configuration is needed on R1 to resolve this issue?

Question # 87

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 88

Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?

Question # 88

Options:

A.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404

B.

Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01

C.

Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404:404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0

D.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

E.

Option A

F.

Option B

G.

Option C

Question 89

An engineer configured SNMP notifications sent to the management server using authentication and encrypting data with DES. An error in the response PDU is received as "UNKNOWNUSERNAME. WRONGDIGEST". Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authPriv .

B.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

C.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

D.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authPriv.

Question 90

A customer reports to the support desk that they cannot print from their PC to the local printer id:401987778. Which tool must be used to diagnose the issue using Cisco DNA Center Assurance?

Options:

A.

application trace

B.

path trace

C.

ACL trace

D.

device trace

Question 91

How are MPLS Layer 3 VPN services deployed?

Options:

A.

The RD and RT values must match under the VRR

B.

The RD and RT values under a VRF must match on the remote PE router

C.

The import and export RT values under a VRF must always be the same.

D.

The label switch path must be available between the local and remote PE routers.

Question 92

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 92

The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E0/0 interface. The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E0/0 interface by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E0/0 interface

Question 93

What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling.

B.

It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites.

C.

BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes.

D.

A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination.

E.

Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network.

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 94

A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

B.

Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

C.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

D.

Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Question 95

What does IPv6 Source Guard utilize to determine if IPv6 source addresses should be forwarded?

Options:

A.

ACE

B.

ACLS

C.

DHCP

D.

Binding Table

Question 96

Which two components are needed for a service provider to utilize the LVPN MPLS application? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The P routers must be configured for MP-iBGP toward the PE routers

B.

The P routers must be configured with RSVP.

C.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-iBGP with other PE routers

D.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-eBGP to connect to CEs

E.

The P and PE routers must be configured with LDP or RSVP

Question 97

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator has successfully configured DMVPN topology between a hub and two spoke routers. Which two configuration commands should establish direct communications between spoke 1 and spoke 2 without going through the hub? (Choose two).

Question # 97

Options:

A.

At the hub router, configure the ip nhrp shortcut command.

B.

At the spoke routers, configure the ip nhrp spoke-tunnel command.

C.

At the hub router, configure ip nhrp redirect the command

D.

At the spoke routers, configure the ip nhrp shortcut command.

E.

At the hub router, configure tne Ip nhrp spoke-tunnel command

Question 98

Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit. The remote server is failing to receive the NetFlow data Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the flow transport command transport udp 2055 to move under flow monitor profile.

B.

Modify the interlace command to Ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Input.

C.

Modify the udp port under flow exporter profile to Ip transport udp 4739.

D.

Modify the flow record command record v4_r1 to move under flow exporter profile.

Question 99

Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return traffic only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any syndeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out

B.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any syndeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in

C.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any establisheddeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in

D.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any establisheddeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out

Question 100

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 100

Which two actions restrict access to router R1 by SSH? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh on line vty and remove sequence 30 from access list 100.

B.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 20 from access list 100.

C.

Remove class-map ANY from service-policy CoPP

D.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 10 from access list 199.

E.

Remove sequence 10 from access list 100 and add sequence 20 deny tcp any any eq telnet to access list 199

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 101

R1 is connected with R2 via GigabitEthernet0/0, and R2 cannot ping R1. What action will fix the issue?

Options:

A.

Fix route dampening configured on the router.

B.

Replace the SFP module because it is not supported.

C.

Fix IP Event Dampening configured on the interface.

D.

Correct the IP SLA probe that failed.

Question 102

Question # 102

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).

router bgp 64511

network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0

aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0

After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only

B.

router bgp 64511neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-onlyneighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only

C.

interface E 0/0ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!interface E 0/1ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC

D.

ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC!router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Question 103

What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets.

B.

Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header.

C.

LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information.

D.

An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class.

E.

A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet.

Question 104

Drag and drop the LDP features from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Question # 104

Options:

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 105

An IT staff member comes into the office during normal office hours and cannot access devices through SSH Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the access list to use the correct IP address.

B.

Configure the correct time range.

C.

Modify the access list to correct the subnet mask

D.

Configure the access list in the outbound direction.

Question 106

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 106

Question # 106

An engineer identifier a Layer 2 loop using DNAC. Which command fixes the problem in the SF-D9300-1 switch?

Options:

A.

no spanning-tree uplinkfast

B.

spanning-tree loopguard default

C.

spanning-tree backbonesfast

D.

spanning-tree portfast bpduguard

Question 107

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Question # 107

Options:

Question 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 108

The network administrator can see the DHCP discovery packet in R1. but R2 is not replying to the DHCP request. The R1 related interface is configured with the DHCP helper address. If the PC is directly connected to the FaO/1 interface on R2, the DHCP server assigns as IP address from the DHCP pool to the PC. Which two commands resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

service dhcp-relay command on R1

B.

ip dhcp option 82 command on R2

C.

service dhcp command on R1

D.

ip dhcp relay information enable command on R1

E.

ip dhcp relay information trust-all command on R2

Question 109

An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

match the passwords

B.

match the hello timers

C.

match the MTUs

D.

match the network types

Question 110

Question # 110

Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF neighbor relationship is not coming up What must be configured to restore OSPF neighbor adjacency?

Options:

A.

OSPF on the remote router

B.

matching hello timers

C.

use router ID

D.

matching MTU values

Question 111

What are two purposes of using IPv4 and VPNv4 address-family configurations in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The VPNv4 address is used to advertise the MPLS VPN label.

B.

RD is prepended to the IPv4 route to make it unique.

C.

MP-BGP is used to allow overlapping IPv4 addresses between customers to advertisethrough the network.

D.

The IPv4 address is needed to tag the MPLS label.

E.

The VPNv4 address consists of a 64-bit route distinguisher that is prepended to the IPv4prefix.

Question 112

Exhibit:

Question # 112

Bangkok is using ECMP to reach to the 192.168.5.0/24 network. The administrator must configure Bangkok in such a way that Telnet traffic from 192.168.3.0/24 and192.168.4.0/24 networks uses the HongKong router as the preferred router. Which set of configurations accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2interface Ethernet0/3ip policy route-map PBR1

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2interface Ethernet0/1ip policy route-map PBR1

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2!interface Ethernet0/3ip policy route-map PBR1

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2!interface Ethernet0/1ip policy route-map PBR1

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 113

An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?

Options:

A.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 30 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

B.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 10 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

C.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 le 24

D.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 ge 32

Question 114

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 114

A network administrator enables DHCP snooping on the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X switch and configures the uplink port (Port-channel2) as a trusted port. Clients are not receiving an IP address, but when DHCP snooping is disabled, clients start receiving IP addresses. Which global command resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

No ip dhcp snooping information option

B.

ip dhcp snooping

C.

ip dhcp relay information trust portchannel2

D.

ip dhcp snooping trust

Question 115

What are two characteristics of VRF instance? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

All VRFs share customers routing and CEF tables .

B.

An interface must be associated to one VRF.

C.

Each VRF has a different set of routing and CEF tables

D.

It is defined by the VPN membership of a customer site attached to a P device.

E.

A customer site can be associated to different VRFs

Question 116

What does the PE router convert the Ipv4 prefix to within an MPLS VPN?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 prefix combined with the 64-bit route distinguisher

B.

48-bit route combining the IP and PE router-id

C.

prefix that combines the ASN, PE router-id, and IP prefix

D.

eBGP path association between the PE and CE sessions

Question 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 117

Troubleshoot and ensure that branch B only ever uses the MPLS B network to reach HQ. Which action achieves this requirement?

Options:

A.

Introduce an AS path filter on branch A routers so that only local prefixes are advertised into BGP

B.

increase the local preference for all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the local preferences used on the MPLS A network

C.

Introduce AS path prepending on the branch A MPLS B network connection so that any HQ advertisements from branch A toward the MPLS B network are prepended three times

D.

Modify the weight of all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the weights used on the MPLS A network

Question 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 118

A client is concerned that passwords are visible when running this show archive log config all.

Which router configuration is needed to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#password encryption aes

B.

MASS-RTR(config)#aaa authentication arap

C.

MASS-RTR(config)#service password-encryption

D.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#hidekeys

Question 119

Question # 119

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP adjacency. Which action establishes EIGRP adjacency?

Options:

A.

Remove the current autonomous system number on one of the routers and change to a different value.

B.

Remove the passive-interface command from the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

C.

Add the no auto-summary command to the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

D.

Add the passive-interface command to the R1 configuration so that it matches the R2 configuration.

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 120

An IPv6 network was newly deployed in the environment and the help desk reports that R3 cannot SSH to the R2s Loopback interface. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify line 10 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

B.

Remove line 60 from the access list.

C.

Modify line 30 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

D.

Remove line 70 from the access list.

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 121

Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

Options:

A.

Issue the eigrp stub command on R1

B.

Issue the no neighbor stub command on R2.

C.

Issue the eigrp command on R2.

D.

Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

Question 122

Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Question # 122

Options:

Question 123

While troubleshooting connectivity issues to a router, these details are noticed:

Standard pings to all router interfaces, including loopbacks, are successful.

Data traffic is unaffected.

SNMP connectivity is intermittent.

SSH is either slow or disconnects frequently.

Which command must be configured first to troubleshoot this issue?

Options:

A.

show policy-map control-plane

B.

show policy-map

C.

show interface | inc drop

D.

show ip route

Question 124

Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?

Options:

A.

SWAP and POP

B.

SWAP and PUSH

C.

PUSH and PHP

D.

PUSH and POP

Question 125

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 125

AAA server 10.1.1.1 is configured with the default authentication and accounting settings, but the switch cannot communicate with the server Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Match the authentication port

B.

Match the accounting port

C.

Correct the timeout value.

D.

Correct the shared secret.

Question 126

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Question # 126

Options:

Question 127

An engineer configured the wrong default gateway for the Cisco DNA Center enterprise interface during the install. Which command must the engineer run to correct the configuration?

Options:

A.

sudo maglev-config update

B.

sudo maglev install config update

C.

sudo maglev reinstall

D.

sudo update config install

Question 128

Which option is the best for protecting CPU utilization on a device?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

COPP

C.

ICMP redirects

D.

ICMP unreachable messages

Question 129

Which protocol does MPLS use to support traffic engineering?

Options:

A.

Tag Distribution Protocol (TDP)

B.

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

C.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D.

Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 130

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Question 131

An engineer configured a company’s multiple area OSPF head office router and Site A cisco

routers with VRF lite. Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone.

Question # 131

After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3,4 5, and 7 are installed at Site A router. Which configuration resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

configure capability vrf-lite on Site A and its connected PE router under router ospf 1 vrf abc

B.

configure capability vrf-lite on Head Office and its connected PE router under router ospf 1 vrf abc

C.

configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under routtr ospf 1 vrf abc

D.

configure capability vrf-lite on Head Office and Site A routers under router ospf 1 vrf abc

Question 132

Which component of MPLS VPNs is used to extend the IP address so that an engineer is able to

identify to which VPN it belongs?

Options:

A.

VPNv4 address family

B.

RD

C.

RT

D.

LDP

Question 133

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

Options:

A.

Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B.

All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C.

Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D.

To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 134

A junior engineer updated a branch router configuration. Immediately after the change, the engineer receives calls from the help desk that branch personnel cannot reach any network destinations. Which configuration restores service and continues to block 10.1.1.100/32?

Options:

A.

route-map FILTER-IN deny 5

B.

ip prefix-list 102 seq 15 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32

C.

ip prefix-list 102 seq 5 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32

D.

route-map FILTER-IN permit 20

Question 135

Which protocol does VRF-Lite support?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

ODR

C.

EIGRP

D.

IGRP

Question 136

Which configuration enabled the VRF that is labeled “Inet” on FastEthernet0/0?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip vrf InetR1(config-vrf)#interface FastEthernet0/0R1(config-if)#ip vrf forwarding Inet

B.

R1(config)#router ospf 1 vrf InetR1(config-router)#ip vrf forwarding FastEthernet0/0

C.

R1(config)#ip vrf Inet FastEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)# ip vrf InetR1(config-vrf)#ip vrf FastEthernet0/0

Question 137

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 137

A network engineer for AS64512 must remove the inbound and outbound traffic from link A during maintenance without closing the BGP session so that there ............ a backup link over link A toward the ASN. Which BGP configuration on R1 accomplishes this goal?

A)

Question # 137

B)

Question # 137

C)

Question # 137

D)

Question # 137

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 138

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 138

ISP 1 and ISP 2 directly connect to the Internet. A customer is tracking both ISP links to

achieve redundancy and cannot see the Cisco IOS IP SLA tracking output on the router console. Which command is missing from the IP SLA configuration?

Options:

A.

Start-time 00:00

B.

Start-time 0

C.

Start-time immediately

D.

Start-time now

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 139

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and nowPC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B.

Filter OSPF routes into RIP FROM EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2.

C.

Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D.

Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E.

Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 140

Why is user authentication being rejected?

Options:

A.

The TACACS+ server expects “user”, but the NT client sends “domain/user”.

B.

The TACACS+ server refuses the user because the user is set up for CHAP.

C.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is in the local database.

D.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is not in the local database.

Question 141

What is a role of route distinguishers in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

D.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network

Question 142

Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.

Question # 142

Options:

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 143

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1

B.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2

C.

R1(config)#ip sla track 1

D.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1

Question 144

Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?

Options:

A.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

B.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.

C.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.

D.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 145

Drag and drop the credentials from the left onto the remote login information on the right to resolve a failed login attempt to vtys. Not all credentials are uf SLA by defining frequency and schedulingsed

Question # 145

Options:

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 146

The output of the trace route from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration

prevents this loop?

A)

Question # 146

B)

Question # 146

C)

Question # 146

D)

Question # 146

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 147

Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?

Options:

A.

E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

B.

E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF

C.

only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

D.

only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1

Question 148

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 148

Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Question # 148

Question # 148

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 149

Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories on the right.

Question # 149

Options:

Question 150

What is a limitation of IPv6 RA Guard?

Options:

A.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed

B.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

C.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction

D.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned

Question 151

After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?

A)

Question # 151

B)

Question # 151

C)

Question # 151

D)

Question # 151

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 152

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

Options:

A.

20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

B.

32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

C.

20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

D.

32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Question 153

Drag and Drop the IPv6 First-Hop Security features from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Question # 153

Options:

Question 154

Refer to the following output:

Router#show ip nhrp detail

10.1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47

TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used

NBMA address: 10.12.1.2

What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?

Options:

A.

It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.

B.

Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.

C.

NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.

D.

The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.

E.

The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 155

Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP

server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

Options:

A.

Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool

B.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value

C.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value

D.

Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool

Question 156

What is the output of the following command:

show ip vrf

Options:

A.

Show's default RD values

B.

Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF

C.

Show's routing protocol information associated with a VRF.

D.

Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 157

Which control plane policy limits BGP traffic that is destined to the CPU to 1 Mbps and

ignores BGP traffic that is sent at higher rate?

Options:

A.

policy-map SHAPE_BGP

B.

policy-map LIMIT_BGP

C.

policy-map POLICE_BGP

D.

policy-map COPP

Question 158

A network engineer is investigating a flapping (up/down) interface issue on a core switch that is synchronized to an NTP server. Log output currently does not show the time of the flap. Which command allows the logging on the switch to show the time of the flap according to the clock on the device?

Options:

A.

service timestamps log uptime

B.

clock summer-time mst recurring 2 Sunday mar 2:00 1 Sunday nov 2:00

C.

service timestamps log datetime localtime show-timezone

D.

clock calendar-valid

Question 159

R2 has a locally originated prefix 192.168.130.0/24 and has these configurations:

Question # 159

What is the result when the route-map OUT command is applied toward an eBGP neighbor R1 (1.1.1.1) by using the neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map OUT out command?

Options:

A.

R1 sees 192.168.130.0/24 as two AS hops away instead of one AS hop away.

B.

R1 does not accept any routes other than 192.168.130.0/24

C.

R1 does not forward traffic that is destined for 192.168.30.0/24

D.

Network 192.168.130.0/24 is not allowed in the R1 table

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 160

The ACL is placed on the inbound Gigabit 0/1 interface of the router. Host

192.168.10.10cannot SSH to host 192.168.100.10 even though the flow is permitted. Which action

resolves the issue without opening full access to this router?

Options:

A.

Move the SSH entry to the beginning of the ACL

B.

Temporarily move the permit ip any any line to the beginning of the ACL to see if the flow works

C.

Temporarily remove the ACL from the interface to see if the flow works

D.

Run the show access-list FILTER command to view if the SSH entry has any hit statistic associated with it

Question 161

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Question # 161

Options:

Question 162

Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

C.

It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

D.

It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 163

Refer the exhibit.

Question # 163

Which action resolves intermittent connectivity observed with the SNMP trap

packets?

Options:

A.

Decrease the committed burst Size of the mgmt class map

B.

Increase the CIR of the mgmt class map

C.

Add a new class map to match TCP traffic

D.

Add one new entry in the ACL 120 to permit the UDP port 161

Question 164

Exhibit:

Question # 164

BGP is flapping after the Copp policy is applied. What are the two solutions to fix the issue?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure BGP in the COPP-CRITICAL-7600 ACL

B.

Configure a higher value for CIR under the default class to allow more packets during peak traffic

C.

Configure a higher value for CIR under the class COPP-CRITICAL-7600

D.

Configure a three-color policer instead of two-color policer under class COPP-CRITICAL-7600

E.

Configure IP CEF to CoPP policy and BGP to work

Question 165

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

Options:

A.

nonbroadcast multiaccess

B.

packet switching

C.

policy-based routing

D.

forwarding information base

Question 166

What is the role of a route distinguisher via a VRF-Lite setup implementation?

Options:

A.

It extends the IP address to identify which VFP instance it belongs to.

B.

It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances

C.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol capabilities

D.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol capabilities

Question 167

Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

MPLS VPN

C.

Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI)

D.

SSL VPN

E.

PPPoE

Question 168

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

Options:

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Question 169

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

Options:

A.

multi-paths eibgp 2

B.

maximum-paths 2

C.

Maximum-paths ibgp 2

D.

multi-paths 2

Question 170

Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database

B.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database

C.

The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170

D.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1

E.

The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRPautonomous system number

F.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table

Question 171

Which configuration adds an IPv4 interface to an OSPFv3 process in OSPFv3 address family configuration?

Options:

A.

Router ospf3 1 address-family ipv4

B.

Router(config-router)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0

C.

Router(config-if)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0

D.

Router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 unicast

Question 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 172

An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

Options:

A.

Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.

B.

Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.

C.

Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.

D.

Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.

Question 173

During the maintenance window an administrator accidentally deleted the Telnet-related

configuration that permits a Telnet connection from the inside network (Eth0/0) to the outside of the networking between Friday – Sunday night hours only. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

Question # 173

B)

Question # 173

C)

Question # 173

D)

Question # 173

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 174

Which statement about R1 is true?

Options:

A.

OSPF redistributes RIP routes only if they have a tag of one.

B.

RIP learned routes are distributed to OSPF with a tag value of one.

C.

R1 adds one to the metric for RIP learned routes before redistributing to OSPF.

D.

RIP routes are redistributed to OSPF without any changes.

Question 175

What is a function of IPv6 ND inspection?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

Question 176

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 176

During troubleshooting it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure

web browser. What is needed to fix the problem?

Options:

A.

permit tcp port 443

B.

permit udp port 465

C.

permit tcp port 465

D.

permit tcp port 22

Question 177

Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 178

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

Options:

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

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Total 594 questions