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Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.
Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be enable a floating default route on router A?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
What is a zero-day exploit?
Refer to the exhibit.
When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.
Which command must be used to configure the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?
Refer to the exhibit.
SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both Sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?
The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?
What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?
Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:
• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.
• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.
• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.
Which configuration set meets these requirements?
What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?
What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many arrays are present in the JSON data?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
How do UTP and STP cables compare?
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?
What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.
What is a function performed by a web server?
Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >
What does traffic shaping do?
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2.Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.
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