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Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam Practice Test

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Total 1005 questions

Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 1

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

Question 2

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Question 3

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 4

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Question 5

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Question 6

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Question 7

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Question 8

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Question 9

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

Options:

A.

learning

B.

forwarding

C.

blocking

D.

listening

Question 10

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Question 11

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Layer 2 forwarding

B.

coordinating VTNs

C.

tracking hosts

D.

managing the topology

E.

protecting against DDoS attacks

Question 12

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 12

Options:

Question 13

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 14

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 15

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

Question # 15

B)

Question # 15

C)

Question # 15

D)

Question # 15

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 16

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Question 17

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 18

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Question 19

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

Question 20

What does physical access control regulate?

Options:

A.

access to spec fie networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access :o computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 21

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Question # 21

Options:

Question 22

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Question 23

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Question 24

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Question 25

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Question 26

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

Question 27

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

Options:

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Question 28

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Question 29

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 30

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

Options:

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

Question 31

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

Options:

A.

allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B.

provides direct connections between subscribers

C.

supports Layer 2 VPNs

D.

supports application optimization

Question 32

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Question 33

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Question 34

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

Options:

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Question 35

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Question 36

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Question # 36

Options:

Question 37

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

Question 38

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

Options:

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

Question 39

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

Question 40

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 40

Options:

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 41

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 42

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Question 43

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

Options:

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Question 44

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Question # 44

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 45

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

Question 46

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Question 47

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 48

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

Options:

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Question 49

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

Question 50

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

Question 51

What is a benefit of VRRP?

Options:

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

Question 52

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Question 53

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Question 54

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Question # 54

Options:

Question 55

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Question 56

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

Question 57

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Question 58

Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

Question # 58

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 59

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Question # 59

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question 60

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Question 61

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

Question 62

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Question 63

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 63

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Question 64

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Question 65

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Question # 65

Options:

Question 66

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

Question 67

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Question 68

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Question 69

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Question 70

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Question 71

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Question # 71

Question # 71

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 72

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 72

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Question # 72

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 73

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Question 74

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

Question 75

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 76

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

Options:

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Question 77

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 77

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Question 78

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 79

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Question 80

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RADIUS

C.

TACACS+

D.

HTTP

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 81

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Question 82

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

Question 83

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

Question 84

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 85

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question 86

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

Question 87

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Question 88

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 88

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Question 89

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 89

Options:

Question 90

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Options:

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Question 91

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Question 92

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Question 93

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

Question 94

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Question 95

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Question 96

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

Question 97

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Question 98

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Question 99

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Question 100

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Question 101

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

Question 102

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 103

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Question 104

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Question 105

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 105

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Question 106

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Question # 106

Options:

Question 107

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Question 108

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Question 109

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

Options:

A.

control layer and the infrastructure layer

B.

application layer and the infrastructure layer

C.

application layer and the management layer

D.

control layer and the application layer

Question 110

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Question 111

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Question 112

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Question 113

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Question # 113

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Question 114

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Question 115

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

Question 116

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Question 117

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 117

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

Question 118

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question 119

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

Question 120

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question 121

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 122

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Question 123

Refer to Itie exhibit

Question # 123

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(confKj-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config.if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)aswitchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

Question 124

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

Options:

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

Question 125

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

Options:

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 126

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

Options:

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

Question 127

Which mechanism allows WPA3 to provide a higher degree of security than its predecessors?

Options:

A.

special-character support in preshared Keys

B.

SAE password-based key exchange

C.

automatic device pairing

D.

certificate-based authentication

Question 128

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question 129

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 129

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?

Options:

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

Question 130

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

Options:

A.

loop guard

B.

portfast

C.

uplinkfast

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 131

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

Question 132

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Options:

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Question 133

Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

Options:

A.

multicast

B.

private

C.

loopback

D.

public

Question 134

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services firm the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

Question # 134

Options:

Question 135

Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?

Options:

A.

management

B.

control

C.

action

D.

protected frame

Question 136

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 136

Options:

Question 137

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

Options:

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

Question 138

Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 12

Question 139

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Question 140

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 140

Options:

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 141

What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

key

C.

value

D.

object

Question 142

NO: 105

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

Options:

A.

00-00-0C-07-AD-89

B.

00-00-5E-00-01-0a

C.

00-07-C0-70-AB-01

D.

00-C6-41-93-90-91

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 143

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 144

Which types of JSON data is shown

Options:

A.

Object

B.

Sequence

C.

String

D.

boolean

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit.

PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

Question # 145

Options:

A.

switch port trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

switch port trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 146

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

Question 147

: 248

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Question 148

Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

Question # 148

Options:

Question 149

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Question # 149

Options:

Question 150

Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

public

C.

private

D.

multicast

Question 151

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

Options:

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

Question 152

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 152

Options:

Question 153

Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

Options:

A.

EtherChannel

B.

LAG

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question 154

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Question # 154

Options:

Question 155

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Question # 155

Options:

Question 156

Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

Options:

A.

PSK

B.

TKIP

C.

SAE

D.

AES

Question 157

Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request

Options:

A.

Get

B.

GetNext

C.

Set

D.

GetBulk

E.

Inform

Question 158

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

Question 159

Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

on

B.

active

C.

auto

D.

passive

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 160

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

Question 161

It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

Options:

A.

email system patches

B.

physical access control

C.

software firewall enabled on all PCs

D.

user awareness training

Question 162

N NO: 271

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 162

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

Options:

A.

metric

B.

cost

C.

longest prefix

D.

administrative distance

Question 163

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Question 164

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Question # 164

Options:

Question 165

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 165

How many JSON objects are presented?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 166

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.

to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

Question 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 167

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 168

A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

Options:

A.

GCMP2S6

B.

GCMP128

C.

CCMP256

D.

CCMP128

Question 169

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

Question 170

The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.10.1

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1

C.

ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

D.

ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1

Question 171

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Question # 171

Options:

Question 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 172

Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

Question # 172

B)

Question # 172

C)

Question # 172

D)

Question # 172

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 173

SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both Sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B.

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

switchport dot1q ethertype 0800

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

switchport trunk native vlan 7

D.

switchport dynamic auto

switchport nonegotiate

Question 174

Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

Options:

A.

STP

B.

port security

C.

wrong cable type

D.

shutdown command

Question 175

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

Question 176

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

Question 177

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Options:

A.

AES

B.

TKIP

C.

PEAP

D.

EAP

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 178

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

Question 179

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 179

A packet sourced from 172.16.32 254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 180

NO: 22

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

Question 181

Question # 181

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

Question # 181

B)

Question # 181

C)

Question # 181

D)

Question # 181

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 182

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

Question 183

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

Question 184

Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

Question 185

Question # 185

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer just installed network 10.120.10.0/24. Which configuration must be applied to the R14 router to add the new network to its OSPF routing table?

Options:

A.

router ospf 100

network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B.

router ospf 120

network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

ip route 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/1

C.

router ospf 100 area 0

network 10.120.10.0 0.0.0.255

Question 186

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Question # 186Question # 186

Options:

Question 187

What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute data-plane functions.

B.

Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

C.

Traditional networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute control-plane functions.

D.

Traditional networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute data-plane functions.

Question 188

Question # 188

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Question # 188

Options:

Question 189

Question # 189

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Question # 189

Options:

Question 190

Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

Question 191

Drag and drop the common functions from the left onto the cofresponding network topology architecture layer on the right. Not all common functions are used.

Question # 191

Options:

Question 192

Question # 192

Question # 192

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 193

Question # 193

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:

• Create the username as CCUser.

• Create the password as NA!2Scc.

• Encrypt the user password.

What must be configured to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

username CCUser privies 10 password NA!2Scc

B.

username CCUser password NA!2Scc enable password level 5 NA!2$cc

C.

username CCUser secret NA!2Scc

D.

username CCUser privilege 15 password NA!2Scc enable secret 0 NA!2$cc

Question 194

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP tor applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

B.

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

D.

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

Question 195

Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

Question 196

Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question 197

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

Question 198

Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Question 199

How does machine learning improve the detection of unauthorized network access?

Options:

A.

It monitors for outdated software.

B.

It dictates security policy updates.

C.

It identifies patterns indicating intrusions.

D.

It assigns security clearance levels.

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

Question # 200

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?

B.

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.

Is the DNS server reachable?

Question 201

Which advantage does machine learning offer for network security?

Options:

A.

It improves real-time threat detection.

B.

It manages firewall rule sets.

C.

It enforces password complexity requirements.

D.

It controls VPN access permissions.

Question 202

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

One-Click

B.

Hotspot

C.

Enhanced Bluetooth

D.

Whole Home

Question 203

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

Question 204

Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 address autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

Question 205

A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their Importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?

Options:

A.

level

B.

message body

C.

process ID

D.

facility

Question 206

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

Options:

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

Question 207

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 207

Options:

Question 208

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions "admin" accounts

D.

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors

Question 209

Question # 209

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode auto

Question 210

What is an Ansible inventory?

Options:

A.

file that defines the target devices upon which commands and tasks are executed

B.

unit of Python code to be executed within Ansible

C.

collection of actions to perform on target devices, expressed in YAML format

D.

device with Ansible installed that manages target devices

Question 211

Question # 211

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination address of 10.10.10.147?

Options:

A.

FastEthemet 0/0

B.

Senal0/0

C.

FastEthemet 0/1

Question 212

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

Question 213

Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.

O 100.100.100.100'32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the route

S 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.

D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,

R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

Question 214

Question # 214

Question # 214

Question # 214

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 215

Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip access-list extended Services

35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access-list extended Services

ip access-list extended Services

30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access-list extended Services

permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access-list extended Services

ip access-list extended Services

permit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53

permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

deny ip any any log

Question 216

What does the term "spirt MAC” refer to in a wireless architecture?

Options:

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions from the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addresses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

Question 217

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

Options:

A.

application

B.

services

C.

control

D.

data

Question 218

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 218

Options:

Question 219

Question # 219

Question # 219

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

Question 220

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 220

Options:

Question 221

Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

Options:

A.

password

B.

muftifactor

C.

biometric

D.

certificate

Question 222

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Question # 222Question # 222

Options:

Question 223

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 floating

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

Question 224

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user's connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates "who you are."

Question 225

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

Question 226

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Question # 226Question # 226

Options:

Question 227

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 227

Options:

Question 228

What are two facts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

Question 229

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

console

C.

HTTPS

D.

SSH

Question 230

Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

delete

B.

create

C.

update

D.

read

Question 231

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 231

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 232

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 232

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 233

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question 234

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Question 235

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Question 236

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

Question # 236

B)

Question # 236

C)

Question # 236

D)

Question # 236

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 237

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 237

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Question 238

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 238

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question 239

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Question 240

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 240

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Question 241

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Question # 241

Options:

Question 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 242

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Question 243

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Question 244

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 244

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Total 1005 questions