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Checkpoint 156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Exam Practice Test

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Total 628 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Questions and Answers

Question 1

CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled: (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 2

What component of Management is used tor indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Question 3

SmartEvent uses it's event policy to identify events. How can this be customized?

Options:

A.

By modifying the firewall rulebase

B.

By creating event candidates

C.

By matching logs against exclusions

D.

By matching logs against event rules

Question 4

Can Check Point and Third-party Gateways establish a certificate-based Site-to-Site VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

Yes, but they need to have a mutually trusted certificate authority

B.

Yes, but they have to have a pre-shared secret key

C.

No, they cannot share certificate authorities

D.

No, Certificate based VPNs are only possible between Check Point devices

Question 5

Fill in the blank: A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .

Options:

A.

The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

Question 6

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

Options:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

Question 7

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Question 8

What is Dynamic Balancing?

Options:

A.

It is a ClusterXL feature that switches an HA cluster into an LS cluster if required to maximize throughput

B.

It is a feature that uses a daemon to balance the required number of firewall instances and SNDs based on the current load

C.

It is a new feature that is capable of dynamically reserve the amount of Hash kernel memory to reflect the resource usage necessary for maximizing the session rate.

D.

It is a CoreXL feature that assigns the SND to network interfaces to balance the RX Cache of the interfaces

Question 9

SmartConsole R81 x requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent.

Options:

A.

19009, 19090 & 443

B.

19009, 19004 & 18190

C.

18190 & 443

D.

19009, 18190 & 443

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 11

identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access, and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address

B.

Network location the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

C.

Log server IP address

D.

Gateway proxy IP address

Question 12

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

10 interfaces

B.

3 interfaces

C.

4 interfaces

D.

5 interfaces

Question 13

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a valid type of SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Question 15

What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gala WebUI (CPUSE)?

Options:

A.

Manually, Scheduled, Automatic

B.

Manually, Automatic, Disabled

C.

Manually, Scheduled, Disabled

D.

Manually, Scheduled, Enabled

Question 16

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

Question 17

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 18

In Threat Prevention, you can create new or clone profiles but you CANNOT change the out-of-the-box profiles of:

Options:

A.

Basic, Optimized, Strict

B.

Basic, Optimized, Severe

C.

General, Escalation, Severe

D.

General, purposed, Strict

Question 19

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

Question # 19

Options:

A.

set web ssl-port

B.

set Gaia-portal port

C.

set Gaia-portal https-port

D.

set web https-port

Question 20

What should the admin do in case the Primary Management Server is temporary down?

Options:

A.

Use the VIP in SmartConsole you always reach the active Management Server.

B.

The Secondary will take over automatically Change the IP in SmartConsole to logon to the private IP of the Secondary Management Server.

C.

Run the 'promote_util' to activate the Secondary Management server

D.

Logon with SmartConsole to the Secondary Management Server and choose "Make Active' under Actions in the HA Management Menu

Question 21

Which of the following is a task of the CPD process?

Options:

A.

Invoke and monitor critical processes and attempts to restart them if they fail

B.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

C.

Log forwarding

D.

Responsible for processing most traffic on a security gateway

Question 22

In CoreXL, the Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times. Each replicated copy or instance can perform the following:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

C.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores

D.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

Question 23

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Question 24

Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R81 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Options:

A.

Firewall policy install

B.

Threat Prevention policy install

C.

Anti-bot policy install

D.

Access Control policy install

Question 25

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 26

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Initiation, Conversion and FWD REXEC

B.

Verification, Commit, Installation

C.

Initiation, Conversion and Save

D.

Verification Compilation, Transfer and Commit

Question 27

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ________ .

Options:

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Question 28

You want to gather data and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

B.

Sandblast Mobile Protect

C.

SecuRemote

D.

SmartEvent Client Info

Question 29

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl multik prioq 2

C.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

D.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

Question 30

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus

B.

IPS

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Application Control and URL Filtering

Question 31

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules Track option set as Log or alert.

B.

Yes it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway.

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged.

D.

Yes it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways.

Question 32

Which statement is false in respect of the SmartConsole after upgrading the management server to R81.20?

Options:

A.

Yes. You can download the SmartConsole directly from the Download Center

B.

As far as you use version R80.40, no upgrade is needed due to compatibility mode

C.

Yes, using CPUSE you can make the installer available in the Web Portal of the Management Server

D.

Yes, the SmartConsole Upgrade package can be installed using CPUSE

Question 33

To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was dropped, what would be the query syntax?

Options:

A.

blada: application control AND action:drop

B.

blade."application control AND action;drop

C.

(blade: application control AND action;drop)

D.

blade;"application control AND action:drop

Question 34

Which is the command to identify the NIC driver before considering about the employment of the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

show interface eth0 mq

B.

ethtool A eth0

C.

ifconfig -i eth0 verbose

D.

ip show Int eth0

Question 35

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 36

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Advanced Networking Blade

Question 37

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

Options:

A.

The corresponding feature is new to R81.20 and is called "Management Data Plane Separation"

B.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Dispatching"

C.

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

D.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Split"

Question 38

When Configuring Endpoint Compliance Settings for Applications and Gateways within Mobile Access, which of the three approaches will allow you to configure individual policies for each application?

Options:

A.

Basic Approach

B.

Strong Approach

C.

Very Advanced Approach

D.

Medium Approach

Question 39

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination or client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP.

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work.

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary.

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly.

Question 40

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

Options:

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

Question 41

Bob has finished io setup provisioning a secondary security management server. Now he wants to check if the provisioning has been correct. Which of the following Check Point command can be used to check if the security management server has been installed as a primary or a secondary security management server?

Options:

A.

cpprod_util MgmtlsPrimary

B.

cpprod_util FwlsSecondary

C.

cpprod_util MgmtlsSecondary

D.

cpprod_util FwlsPrimary

Question 42

After finishing installation admin John likes to use top command in expert mode. John has to set the expert-password and was able to use top command. A week later John has to use the top command again, He detected that the expert password is no longer valid. What is the most probable reason for this behavior?

Options:

A.

“write memory” was not issued on clish

B.

changes are only possible via SmartConsole

C.

“save config” was not issued in expert mode

D.

“save config” was not issued on clish

Question 43

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

B.

Shared User Certificates

C.

Shared Secret Passwords

D.

Unique Passwords

Question 44

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

Question 45

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

Question 46

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

Question 47

GAIA greatly increases operational efficiency by offering an advanced and intuitive software update agent, commonly referred to as the:

Options:

A.

Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

Check Point Software Update Agent

C.

Check Point Remote Installation Daemon (CPRID)

D.

Check Point Software Update Daemon

Question 48

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

Question 49

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

Options:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

Question 50

Which of the following process pulls application monitoring status?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpwd

D.

cpd

Question 51

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

Question 52

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

Question 53

How can SmartView application accessed?

Options:

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

Question 54

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 55

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

Question 56

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Question 57

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Question 58

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

Question 59

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Options:

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

Question 60

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

Question 61

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 62

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

Question 63

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Question 64

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

Question 65

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Question 66

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Question 67

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

Question 68

Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

E.

Summary

Question 69

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Options:

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

Question 70

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Question 71

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Question 72

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

Question 73

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

Question 74

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

Question 75

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

Question 76

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

Question 77

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Question 78

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Question 79

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Question 80

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

Options:

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

Question 81

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

Question 82

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

Question 83

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 84

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

Question 85

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

Options:

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

Question 86

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores.

Question 87

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

Question 88

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

Question 89

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

Question 90

Which features are only supported with R81.20 Gateways but not R77.x?

Options:

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Question 91

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

Question 92

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

Options:

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

Question 93

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

Question 94

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Question 95

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Question 96

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

Question 97

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Question 98

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

Question 99

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

Question 100

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

Options:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Question 101

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Question 102

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

Question 103

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

Options:

A.

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.

Supplement DLP data watermark

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 105

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 106

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Question 107

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 108

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Question 109

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

Options:

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

Question 110

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

Question 111

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

Options:

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Question 112

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

Question 113

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

Question 114

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 115

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

Question 116

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Question 117

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

Question 118

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

Options:

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

Question 119

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

Question 120

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

Question 121

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

Options:

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

Question 122

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

Question 123

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Question 124

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

Question 125

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

Options:

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

Question 126

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Question 127

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Question 128

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Question 129

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Question 130

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

Question 131

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

Question 132

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

Question 133

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Question 134

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Takes less than a second to complete

B.

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

C.

Always delivers a file

D.

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

Question 135

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 136

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 137

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

Question 138

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 139

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

Question 140

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

Question 141

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Question 142

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

Options:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

Question 143

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

Options:

A.

sim affinity -m

B.

sim affinity -l

C.

sim affinity -a

D.

sim affinity -s

Question 144

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

Question 145

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Question # 145

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 146

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Question 147

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

Options:

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

Question 148

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

Question 149

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Question 150

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

Question 151

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

Question 152

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 153

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Question 154

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

Options:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Question 155

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Question 156

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

Question 157

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

Question 158

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 159

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question 160

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Question 161

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

Question 162

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

Options:

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

Question 163

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

Question 164

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

Question 165

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

Question 166

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Question 167

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

Question 168

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Question 169

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

Question 170

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

Question 171

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Question 172

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

Question 173

The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 174

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

Question 175

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

Question 176

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Question 177

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

Question 178

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

Options:

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

Question 179

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

Question 180

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

Options:

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

Question 181

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

Question 182

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

Question 183

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Question 184

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Question 185

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

Question 186

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 187

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

Question # 187

Options:

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

Question 188

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Total 628 questions