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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Exam Practice Test

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Total 411 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

Options:

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

Question 2

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

Question 3

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Question 4

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Save Policy

B.

Install Database

C.

Save session

D.

Install Policy

Question 5

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 6

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

Question 7

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

Options:

A.

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.

cp.macro

C.

Contract file (.xml)

D.

license File (.lie)

Question 8

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Question 9

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 10

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Options:

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 12

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

Options:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

Question 13

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____

Options:

A.

GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)

B.

Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell

C.

Command line interface; GAiA Portal

D.

Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)

Question 14

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Question 15

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot protection

B.

Anti-Malware protection

C.

Policy-based routing

D.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

Question 16

In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

Options:

A.

From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

B.

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

C.

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

D.

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

Question 17

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

Question 18

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Network Security Appliances

B.

Rugged Appliances

C.

Scalable Platforms

D.

Small Business and Branch Office Appliances

Question 19

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

Question 20

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

Question 21

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.

add users to your Gaia system.

B.

assign privileges to users.

C.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.

edit the home directory of the user.

Question 22

Choose what BEST describes a Session

Options:

A.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

C.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

D.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

Question 23

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

Question 24

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

Question 25

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Question 26

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Question 27

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Security Client

B.

Full Agent

C.

Light Agent

D.

System Agent

Question 28

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 29

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

Question 30

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

Options:

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

Question 31

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 32

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Question 33

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

Question 34

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

Options:

A.

src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

B.

src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

C.

192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop

D.

192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

Question 35

What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Options:

A.

Use Office Mode

B.

Use identity agents

C.

Share user identities between gateways

D.

Use captive portal

Question 36

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

Options:

A.

license view

B.

fw ctl tab -t license -s

C.

show license -s

D.

cplic print

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 38

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

Question 39

When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

C.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

Question 40

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Central

C.

Corporate

D.

Local

Question 41

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Options:

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

Question 42

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

Question 44

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Options:

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Question 45

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 46

Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

SSL

B.

Captive Portal

C.

PKI

D.

RSA

Question 47

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

Question 48

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Question 49

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 50

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

Options:

A.

I have changed this rule

B.

Someone else has changed this rule

C.

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

D.

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Question 51

You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

B.

Log Trimming is enabled.

C.

Logging has disk space issues

D.

Content Awareness is not enabled.

Question 52

What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

High Performance

B.

Good Security

C.

No Screening above Network layer

D.

Transparency

Question 53

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Question 54

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Question 55

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 56

When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

Options:

A.

Accounting Log

B.

Extended Log

C.

Log

D.

Detailed Log

Question 57

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Question 58

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

Question 59

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 60

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

Options:

A.

SecurID

B.

LDAP

C.

NT domain

D.

SMTP

Question 61

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

Question 62

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 63

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Options:

A.

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

B.

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

C.

R81.10 does not support Layers

D.

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

Question 64

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 65

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Options:

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

Question 66

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 67

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Options:

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

Question 68

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Options:

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

Question 69

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

Question 70

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

Question 72

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

Options:

A.

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

B.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

C.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

D.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

Question 73

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Antivirus

C.

Application Control

D.

NAT

Question 75

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Question 76

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Question 77

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

Question 78

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Question 79

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Options:

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

Question 80

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 81

: 370

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection. Firewall Blade, and URL'Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtenng. Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade. URL/Application Blade and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection. URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

Question 82

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Question 83

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 84

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

Question 85

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 86

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Question 87

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

D.

Security Management Server

Question 88

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Question 89

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Options:

A.

remote access clients.

B.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.

users and user groups.

D.

All of the above.

Question 90

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

Question # 90

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Question 91

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

Question 92

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 93

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Options:

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

Question 94

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 95

What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

Options:

A.

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

B.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

C.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

D.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

Question 96

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 97

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

Question 98

Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 99

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Options:

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

Question 100

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Options:

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

Question 101

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Question 102

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 103

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 104

What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Options:

A.

Automatic Licensing and Verification tool

B.

Verification licensing

C.

Verification tool

D.

Automatic licensing

Question 105

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Options:

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

Question 106

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

Options:

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

Question 107

What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

Options:

A.

RFC 1939

B.

RFC 1950

C.

RFC 1918

D.

RFC 793

Question 108

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

Question 109

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

Question 110

Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)

C.

Active Directory Query

D.

RADIUS

Question 111

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

Options:

A.

Central Licensing is actually not supported with Gaia.

B.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia

C.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

D.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

Question 112

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

Question 113

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Question 114

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 115

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 116

Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

B.

Users can share identities with other users

C.

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

D.

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

Question 117

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

Question 118

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

Question 119

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 120

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

Options:

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Question 121

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

Question 122

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Options:

A.

Concurrent policy packages

B.

Concurrent policies

C.

Global Policies

D.

Shared policies

Question 123

What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate installation

B.

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

C.

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

D.

Cloud based installation

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