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CIMA BA1 Fundamentals of Business Economics Exam Practice Test

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Total 468 questions

Fundamentals of Business Economics Questions and Answers

Question 1

The economy of Country V is initially in equilibrium at a level of national income and employment denoted by Y, at price level denoted by P If there is an increase in aggregate demand, indicate on the graph below the new equilibrium point in the economy.

Question # 1

Options:

Question 2

A regressive tax is defined as one where:

Options:

A.

The amount of tax paid by a taxpayer falls as income rises

B.

The rate of tax is different for different income levels

C.

The proportion of income paid in tax rises as income falls

D.

The tax is levied on expenditure not income

Question 3

Quantitative easing, the purchase of government or private securities by the central banks from investors, is an example of

Options:

A.

contractionary monetary policy.

B.

contractionary fiscal policy.

C.

expansionary fiscal policy.

D.

expansionary monetary policy.

Question 4

Atu, a new social media platform, has launched an advertising campaign directed at areas of Country X where there is a higher proportion of young people than elsewhere.

Which source is most likely to have been used by Atu to acquire this data?

Options:

A.

Demographic statistics published in a census

B.

The l{ addresses of computers in these areas

C.

The level of youth unemployment as recorded by the government

D.

The prominence of other brands focused on young people in the area

Question 5

'The £ has risen against other currencies since August, defying forecasters who thought that the UK's widening trade deficit must cause the £'s exchange rate to fall.'

From the above information, it can be concluded that, since August

Options:

A.

UK exports have become less price competitive

B.

The UK inflation rate has increased

C.

UK interest rates must have increased

D.

The strengthening pound has improved the UK balance of payments on current account

Question 6

A business has a contractual requirement to pay a sum of$6m in a foreign currency in 12 months time. It takes out a forward exchange contract from this sum.

Options:

A.

This is an example of

B.

Translation risk avoidance

C.

Arbitrage

D.

hedging

Question 7

If out of every £20 million increase in national income, £2 million is saved, £4 million is spent on imports and £4 million is paid to the government in taxation, an increase in exports of £40 million will lead to an eventual increase in national income of

Options:

A.

£20 million

B.

£40 million

C.

£80 million

D.

£400 million

Question 8

Governments provide public goods, such as street lighting, because

Options:

A.

private business providers would exploit consumers and make excess profits

B.

it would be an unprofitable activity for private business because of the free-rider problem

C.

governments are more efficient producers of such goods

D.

there are significant external costs in the production process

Question 9

A business analyst has configured a trend regression for the sales of company X. The following table reports the ratios between the actual quarterly sales of company X and the calculated trend, for the period of four years.

Question # 9

What is the seasonal component in the fourth? Give your answer to the decimal places.

Options:

Question 10

Golden Crisp Cereals has calculated that its demand price elasticity is -1.4. It wants to expand in order to produce more cereal and hence increase its sales.

Which of the following are ways in which Golden Crisp Cereals could expand in the short run?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Lease cereal-producing equipment at a fixed price for the next six months

B.

Lease a small factory at a fixed price in order to increase production capacity

C.

Construct a new factory, increasing both staff within the business and the company's production capacity

D.

Invest in research and development so as to perfect the cereal-making process and maintain the company's position as a market leader

E.

Build a long-term marketing strategy involving social media to boost product awareness and hence sales

Question 11

Company X's government has seen the the balance of payments deficit steadily rising while they have been in power.

Which of the following would be a good policy to implement to counteract this?

Options:

A.

Decrease the interest rates across the whole economy to limit foreign investment

B.

Reduce bureaucracy by removing quotas and obligations for imported goods

C.

Increase the rate of income tax by 10% in each bracket

D.

Increase the rate of interest in the economy by 5%

Question 12

Other things being equal, an increase in a country's balance of payments deficit on current account means that

Options:

A.

Import prices must be falling

B.

The volume of goods exported must be falling

C.

Aggregate demand is falling

D.

The difference between government spending and tax revenue is growing

Question 13

The company flowbo Ltd. currently owns 25 bonds with a total nominal value of £1,000. The bill rate is currently 7%. The market value of the bonds is currently 14.5% higher than the nominal value of each individual bond

plus the bill rate.

Which of these is the difference between the nominal value of the bonds plus the bill rate payout and the market value of each bond?

Express your answer in whole pounds.

Options:

A.

£1,021

B.

£1,070

C.

£1,225.15

D.

£1,155.12

Question 14

ToyTown, a soft toy manufacturer, produces what it claims to be the cheapest teddy bears on the market. The graph shows the current price of a ToyTown teddy bear and its relationship to the demand for ToyTown teddy

bears.

If the price of ToyTown teddy bears were to increase, what would happen to the demand?

Options:

A.

Demand would fall as consumers would look for alternative teddy bears to buy

B.

Demand would increase because the teddy bears would be seen as more prestigious by consumers due to their higher prices

C.

Demand would fall as the relationship between price and demand as shown in the graph is inelastic

D.

Demand would increase as the relationship between price and demand as shown in the graph is elastic

Question 15

All of the following would be motives for a horizontal merger except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

To reduce competition in the industry

B.

To secure economies of scale

C.

To secure sources of supply

D.

To pool technology and research

Question 16

Which of the following best defines 'corporate governance'?

Options:

A.

The laws of a country that govern the companies within it

B.

A market where a small number of dominant firm controls prices and quantities

C.

The systems by which organizations are directed and controlled

D.

A situation where management act as agents for shareholders

Question 17

Merit goods are typically characterized by

Options:

A.

non-excludability in consumption

B.

external social costs in production

C.

external social benefits in consumption

D.

non-rivalry in consumption

Question 18

When the government intervenes in the market economy to correct a market failure

Options:

A.

Economic welfare always increases

B.

The problem of government failure may result

C.

In all cases the market mechanism ceases to function

D.

The intervention always creates a surplus

Question 19

Which ONE of the following is NOT a class of stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Connected

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Collaborative

Question 20

A rise in the demand for petrol by motorists is likely to follow a rise in the price of:

Options:

A.

Steel

B.

Second-hand cars

C.

Public transport

D.

Motor insurance

Question 21

Which of the following statements that refer to the price mechanism is not true?

Options:

A.

Imperfect market information may prevent the market working efficiently

B.

Trading can only take place at equilibrium prices in a market economy

C.

A fall in the relative price of a good tends to attract consumers to buy that good instead of other goods

D.

In a market economy some essential goods may not be produced.

Question 22

Which ONE of the following statements about profit is true?

Options:

A.

Normal profit will rise if the cost of production is falling as output increases

B.

Profit per unit is equal to the difference between average revenue and average total cost

C.

The point of profit maximization is always where average costs are lowest

D.

A rise in output will always raise profits provided total revenue is rising

Question 23

When a tax is imposed upon a commodity which the producers must pay to the government, this will cause the commodities?

Options:

A.

Supply curve to shift to the right

B.

Demand curve to shift to the right

C.

Demand curve to shift to the left

D.

Supply curve to shift to the left

Question 24

Which of the following statements about the sources of stakeholder conflict is true?

Options:

A.

Different stakeholders have different objectives

B.

The various stakeholders have differing degrees of influence

C.

Stakeholder conflict only occurs in not-for -profit organizations

D.

Stakeholders with high interest sometimes have limited influence

Question 25

There are waiting lists and shortages of a product. Which ONE of the following statements explains the cause of this?

Options:

A.

A price floor (minimum price) has been set above free market price

B.

A price ceiling (maximum price) has been set above free market price

C.

A price floor (minimum price) has been set below free market price

D.

A price ceiling (maximum price) has been set below free market price

Question 26

All of the following would tend to lead to an industry being dominated by a small number of firms except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

Significant economies of scale in production

B.

The existence of entry barriers to the industry

C.

High initial capital costs in production

D.

Extensive consumer knowledge of products and prices

Question 27

The 'satisfying' model of business behavior states that business will aim to:

Options:

A.

seek profits as the primary business objective

B.

concentrate on the long run growth of sales

C.

attempt to meet the differing demands of various stakeholders

D.

satisfy shareholders demands to maximize shareholder wealth

Question 28

Which of the following provides a definition of a free good?

Options:

A.

No charge is made for it by its supplier

B.

Its provision is financed by taxation

C.

It is produced from renewable resources

D.

It is available at zero cost of production in unlimited quantities

Question 29

A promoter has arranged a large outdoor concert. All the costs are fixed and there are no variable costs associated with the number of spectators attending.

Which of the following statements about the profit maximizing price is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It is the price at which Marginal Revenue is zero

B.

At this price, the price elasticity of demand will be unity (i.e. equal to 1)

C.

This price will ensure the promoter covers the cost of the concert

D.

This is the price which maximizes the revenue the promoter earns from the concert

Question 30

What is meant by the term 'mezzanine finance'?

Options:

A.

Short-term loans to help a firm through a cash flow crisis

B.

Finance that is neither pure debt nor pure equity

C.

Loans made by non-financial institutions

D.

Loans made in foreign currency

Question 31

Which theory of the firm is described by the following statement?

'The decisions of management are the result of a political maneuvering of the various stakeholders connected to the organization.'

Options:

A.

Profit maximizing

B.

Satisfying

C.

Behavioral

D.

Managerial

Question 32

Which of the following functions is not performed by investment exchanges such as NASDAQ, the London Stock Exchange or the New York Stock Exchange?

Options:

A.

A primary market for newly issued private securities

B.

A secondary market to make existing shares liquid

C.

A provider of regulation over assets and trading methods

D.

A lender of last resort to the banking system

Question 33

In a system of freely floating exchange rates the central bank and government will

Options:

A.

Not need to engage in exchange equalization

B.

Allow market forces to determine the exchange rate within a strictly limited band

C.

Have less ability to control the money supply than in a fixed exchange rate system

D.

Have to intervene in foreign exchange markets in order to maintain the system

Question 34

Whenever a government provides health care services free of charge

Options:

A.

Economic welfare is maximized

B.

Government expenditure on the provision of public goods increases

C.

The incentive to provide private health care through the market disappears

D.

Provision of merit goods by the state is taking place

Question 35

All of the following are functions of a central bank except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

Lender of the last resort

B.

Banker to the commercial banks

C.

The conduct of fiscal policy

D.

Regulation of the banking system

Question 36

Following a 10% reduction in the value of its currency, the volume of imports into the country falls by 10%, whilst the volume of exports rises by 15%.

Which of the following effects will occur?

Options:

A.

Balance of payments will improve

B.

Balance of payments will deteriorate

C.

Terms of trade will improve

D.

The central bank will be forced to borrow more foreign exchange to cover the shortfall

Question 37

Central banks fulfill all of the following functions except which?

Options:

A.

Holder of bank accounts on behalf of the commercial banks

B.

Lender of liquidity to the commercial banks

C.

Provider of capital and liquidity to the government

D.

Chief advisor to government on taxation policy

Question 38

The International Monetary Fund uses the funds at its disposal to

Options:

A.

Assist national governments with a budget deficit

B.

Assist national governments to repay their National Debts

C.

Finance specific development projects in Third World countries

D.

Help member countries with temporary balance of payments deficits

Question 39

Which of the following have been recommended in order to prevent a repeat of the 2008 financial crisis?

Options:

A.

Higher capital adequacy ratios for commercial banks

B.

A reduction in the required liquidity ratio for commercial banks

C.

The merging of retail and investment banking

D.

The purchase of bank shares by the government

Question 40

The incentive for two countries to trade with each other would be reduced or removed by

(i). people in both countries having similar tastes and preferences

(ii). per capita income being much higher in one country than in the other

(iii). transport costs between the two countries exceeding the output gain from trade

(iv). the industries in both countries suffering from significant decreasing returns to scale

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii) only

B.

(ii) and (iv) only

C.

(iii) and (iv) only

D.

(i), (iii) and (iv) only

Question 41

All of the following are sources of finance for business except which one?

Options:

A.

Retained profits

B.

Certificates of deposit

C.

New share issues

D.

Mortgages

Question 42

Which ONE of the following would be expected to reduce the net present value of a proposed investment project?

A rise in

Options:

A.

the expected cash flows from the project

B.

the scrap value of the capital at the end of the project's life

C.

interest rates

D.

the net present value of alternative projects

Question 43

Which of the following organisational arrangements is an example of a multinational corporation (MNC)?

Options:

A.

An insurance company based in Country E opens a sales office in Country F in order to service the local market

B.

A music production company based in Country C signs a contract with an artist's management company based in Country D.

C.

A retailer based in Country G uses an online retail platform in order to sell goods to customers in Country H.

D.

A chain of restaurants based in Country B signs a franchise agreement with a company that intends to open restaurants in Country A.

Question 44

Company A owns a factory in a foreign country. Which of the following types of exchange rate risk is company A most likely to experience in relation to the value of the factory'?

Options:

A.

Economic risk

B.

Energy risk

C.

Transaction risk

D.

Translation risk

Question 45

Which of the following is the most likely policy response to an economic recession?

Options:

A.

Revaluation of the domestic currency

B.

Deflationary policy to prevent rising inflationary pressure

C.

Reduce aggregate demand by raising interest rates, taxation, and reducing public expenditure.

D.

Raise aggregate demand by lowering interest rates, reducing taxation and raising public expenditure

Question 46

If a central bank wished to increase the supply of money and credit in the economy it would:

Options:

A.

sell bonds and raise interest rates

B.

buy bonds and reduce interest rates

C.

sell bonds and reduce interest rates

D.

buy bonds and raise interest rates

Question 47

A business sells soft drinks at S3 a bottle and its current sales are 20,000 bottles per month. The price elasticity of demand for this product is -2 If the price is reduced to $2 70, the change in the total revenue for the business will be:

Options:

A.

-S3,300

B.

+54.800

C.

-SI 6.800

D.

+S4.000

Question 48

Organisations are able to achieve more than individuals can achieve because they allow people to do which THREE of the following?

Options:

A.

To devolve decision-making

B.

To pool resources

C.

To share skills and knowledge

D.

To specialise

E.

To earn profits

F.

To create hierarchies

Question 49

A bank charges a 4% quarterly interest rate on a personal loan of $10,000

What is the effective annual amount of interest that the borrower pays on this loan? Give your answer to the nearest whole dollar.

Options:

Question 50

The following table provides the frequency distribution and cumulative frequencies of the cost of monthly rent for 120 apartments. What is the percentage of apartments whose monthly rent is less than $510?

Question # 50

Options:

A.

21%

B.

50%

C.

25%

D.

41%

Question 51

Which THREE of the following are examples of supply-side policies?

Options:

A.

Increasing investment in vocational training for unemployed youth

B.

Providing tax incentives to firms investing in new technology

C.

Reducing the rate of value added tax applied to consumer goods

D.

Increasing current expenditure on a national medical service

E.

Introducing a funding scheme to support university research

F.

Applying a tariff on the import of foreign technology

Question 52

Which of the following is also known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development?

Options:

A.

The European Central Bank

B.

The World Trade Organisation

C.

The International Monetary Fund

D.

The World Bank

Question 53

Based on a trade balance between Country A and Country B over a ten year period, the underlying trend of the trade balance is represent equation

-114.027 -1.47x

where x is the time period expressed in years.

Assuming an additive forecasting model, with a seasonal factor of 82 6, then the forecast for year 2016, in whole units is:

Question # 53

Options:

Question 54

Which TWO of the following would be objectives for internal stakeholders in a profit-seeking organisation?

Options:

A.

improving the working condition and pay levels for the employees

B.

Maximising shareholder wealth

C.

Meeting the legally required environmental standards in the industry

D.

Raising the level of dividends paid out

E.

Increasing the remuneration packages of the company directors

Question 55

A government issues a security which promises to pay $100 per year indefinitely. What is it worth if the required rate of return is..

Options:

A.

$2, 400

B.

$1, 400

C.

$2, 500

D.

$4, 000

Question 56

Setting a minimum wage above the equilibrium wage

Options:

A.

has no effect on unemployment, and setting a minimum wage below the equilibrium wage results in increased unemployment

B.

results in increased unemployment, and setting a minimum wage below the equilibrium wage has no effect on unemployment.

C.

results in decreased unemployment, and setting a minimum wage below the equilibrium wage results in increased unemployment.

D.

results in increased unemployment, and setting a minimum wage below the equilibrium wage results in decreased unemployment

Question 57

Which of the following would not increase barriers to world trade?

Options:

A.

Different governments imposing different health and safety requirements for agricultural products

B.

An oil exporting country insisting that oil is paid for in US dollars

C.

The abolition of subsidies given to farmers in the European Union

D.

A requirement by the Japanese government that customs documents be presented and completed in Japanese

Question 58

On an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram, cost-push inflation is shown by

Options:

A.

A leftward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve

B.

A rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve

C.

A rightward shift of the long-run aggregate supply curve

D.

A leftward shift of the aggregate demand curve

Question 59

The imposition of a tariff on imported goods by a country's government will result in all of the following except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

A shift in domestic income from consumers to producers of the goods

B.

A rise in the domestic price of the imported good

C.

Greater cost push inflationary pressure in the economy

D.

A shift to the left in the demand curve for the imported good

Question 60

In a recession which ONE of the following would be likely to experience the largest fall in demand for its products?

Options:

A.

A manufacturer of industrial machine tools

B.

A chain of supermarket grocery stores

C.

A motor insurance company

D.

A toothpaste manufacturer

Question 61

Identify from the list below the financial instrument that is not a method of government borrowing:

Options:

A.

Cash (i.e. notes and coins)

B.

Taxation

C.

Contributions to state-provided pensions

D.

Government bonds

Question 62

All of the following are characteristics of a recession except which one?

Options:

A.

Rising levels of unemployment.

B.

Increased inflationary pressure.

C.

Improving trade balances.

D.

Increased government budget deficits.

Question 63

Which ONE of the following best explains the statement 'In not for profit organizations money is a constraint and not a goal'?

Options:

A.

Money be ignored because reaching the goals of the organization is all that matters

B.

There is no need for the organization to be efficient

C.

There is a trade off between financial and non-financial goals

D.

Money limits how far the organization can achieve its goals

Question 64

A country has a trade deficit. The demand for its imports and exports are both price elastic. All of the following would lead to an a reduction in the country's trade deficit except which one?

Options:

A.

A fall in consumer incomes in the country.

B.

An improvement in the country's terms of trade.

C.

A depreciation in the exchange rate for the country's currency.

D.

A rise in the rate of inflation in its trading partners' economies.

Question 65

As a result of a period of rapid economic growth, an economy is likely to experience all of the following except which one?

Options:

A.

An improving overseas trade balance.

B.

Falling levels of unemployment.

C.

Increased inflationary pressure.

D.

Rising government tax receipts.

Question 66

The Phillips curve shows that the government

Options:

A.

cannot use monetary policy to reduce the level of unemployment without causing a rise in interest rates.

B.

can only use fiscal policy to reduce the rate of unemployment in the short run but not in the long run.

C.

can only use expansionary policy to reduce the level of unemployment if it is prepared to accept a higher rate of inflation.

D.

in the long run expansionary fiscal and monetary policy can only lead to higher inflation and higher unemployment.

Question 67

Some not-for-profit organizations (NPOs) are required to show they are effective. Which one of the following most closely defines effective?

Options:

A.

Conducts its activities and operations at low cost

B.

Achieves the goals and objectives set for it

C.

Finds the correct balance between cost and benefit

D.

Doesn't make losses

Question 68

Which ONE of the following is an External stakeholder in a state-owned energy provider?

Options:

A.

The industry regulator

B.

A firm selling equipment to the energy provider

C.

Customers of the energy provider

D.

The government

Question 69

If a government adopted a fiscal policy of cutting its budget deficit, the aggregate demand and supply model shows that the result would be:

Options:

A.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right, a fall in output and employment and a rise in the price level

B.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left, a fall in output and employment and a fall in the price level

C.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left, a fall in output and employment and a rise in the price level

D.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right, a rise in output and employment and a rise in the price level

Question 70

Which global institution is concerned with enforcing the GATT?

Options:

A.

The IMF

B.

The World Bank

C.

The World Trade Organization

D.

The G20

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Total 468 questions