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CFA Institute ESG-Investing Certificate in ESG Investing Exam Practice Test

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Total 522 questions

Certificate in ESG Investing Questions and Answers

Question 1

In order to safeguard the independence of the external auditor, European Union (EU) regulation:

Options:

A.

obliges public companies to tender the audit after five years.

B.

obliges public companies to change auditors after ten years at most.

C.

limits the scale and scope of non-audit services an audit firm may provide to clients.

Question 2

The UK's Green Finance Strategy identifies the policy lever of greening finance as:

Options:

A.

strengthening the role of the UK financial sector in driving green finance.

B.

directing private sector financial flows to economic activities that support an environmentally sustainable and resilient growth.

C.

ensuring that the financial sector systematically considers environmental and climate factors in its lending and investment activities.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about green bonds and sustainability-linked bonds (SLBs) is most accurate?

Options:

A.

A global consensus exists on the types of capital projects that fit in the scope of green bonds

B.

Green bonds allow issuers more flexibility in achieving sustainability targets compared to SLBs

C.

Issuers of SLBs agree to pay a higher coupon to investors if they fail to achieve a sustainability-linked target

Question 4

A globally aging population has resulted in the ratio between the active and inactive parts of the workforce to:

Options:

A.

decrease.

B.

remain about the same.

C.

increase.

Question 5

Which of the following is a challenge in ESG integration?

Options:

A.

ESG disclosures that lack comparability across companies

B.

Excessive company-level ESG reporting that overwhelms investors

C.

Standardized disclosures in audited financial statements that hinder differentiated analysis

Question 6

With respect to infrastructure assets, externalities are best described as issues that may be:

Options:

A.

caused by the asset itself and impact its profitability.

B.

originated outside the asset and impact its profitability.

C.

caused by the asset itself and impact its surrounding environment.

Question 7

An analyst would most likely increase a company’s discount rate if the company:

Options:

A.

Has strong ESG practices

B.

Faces significant environmental litigation

C.

Is well-positioned to benefit from ESG opportunities

Question 8

In comparison to institutional investors, the pace of adoption of ESG by retail investors has been:

Options:

A.

slower.

B.

the same.

C.

faster.

Question 9

For investments in wastewater treatment plants, a significant obstacle is:

Options:

A.

lack of demand.

B.

high capital intensity.

C.

availability of unskilled labor.

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of a social factor affecting external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Human rights

B.

Animal welfare

C.

Workers' health and safety

Question 11

A small company based in Sweden operates in an industry that has good sustainability ratings. The company has a low ESG rating that an analyst believes to be biased. The bias would most likely result from the company's:

Options:

A.

industry.

B.

company size.

C.

geographical base of operations.

Question 12

An analyst derives correlations to determine how ESG factors might impact financial performance over time and then weights those factors appropriately within the portfolio. This approach is best described as:

Options:

A.

Thematic

B.

Systematic

C.

Algorithmic

Question 13

Applying constraints in ESG portfolio optimization:

Options:

A.

Can be applied through exclusionary screening

B.

Is currently confined to carbon data due to data limitations

C.

Requires defining an upper and lower bound for a given variable

Question 14

Which of the following is a for-profit provider offering multiple ESG-related products and services?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

UNEP

C.

FactSet

Question 15

Under the International Corporate Governance Network's (ICGN) Global Governance Principles, a board chair's independence is most likely to be questioned if the person:

Options:

A.

is a representative of the state.

B.

has a mandate for a short tenure.

C.

is a former non-executive employee of the company.

Question 16

The World Bank's World Governance Indicators dataset includes rankings on:

Options:

A.

rule of law.

B.

credit rating.

C.

the government debt to GDP ratio.

Question 17

The rules that can be used to construct ESG exchange-traded funds (ETFs) include:

Options:

A.

Thematic investing, only

B.

Tilting weightings based on ESG scores, only

C.

Both thematic investing and tilting weightings based on ESG scores

Question 18

Which of the following ESG factors has the clearest link to corporate financial performance?

Options:

A.

Social

B.

Governance

C.

Environmental

Question 19

Which of the following is best classified as a primary ESG data source?

Options:

A.

ESG ratings

B.

Regulator scores

C.

Research from investment consultants

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of indirectly sourced primary ESG data?

Options:

A.

News articles

B.

Company reports

C.

Bloomberg ESG Disclosure scores

Question 21

A company's external auditor formally reports to the:

Options:

A.

audit committee.

B.

chair of the board of directors.

C.

shareholders at the annual general meeting.

Question 22

The key objective of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises is:

Options:

A.

Remedying business-related human rights abuses

B.

Minimizing the impact of social factors on investments

C.

Requiring investors to take responsibility for the adverse impacts their investments have on society

Question 23

By 2030, the European Strategy for Plastics in a Circular Economy will require:

Options:

A.

A voluntary agreement to ban plastic packaging

B.

All plastic packaging to be reusable or recyclable

C.

Member countries to impose taxes on plastic packaging

Question 24

Investment in fossil fuels is permitted under:

Options:

A.

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks only

B.

The EU Climate Transition Benchmarks only

C.

Both the EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks and the EU Climate Transition Benchmarks

Question 25

Jevon's paradox refers to a situation where improvements in efficiency are offset by increased:

Options:

A.

waste.

B.

consumption of the product.

C.

spending on sectors where emissions are harder to abate.

Question 26

A mature company has launched a product that reduces customers' electricity usage. This should be incorporated into the company’s discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis by increasing its:

Options:

A.

cost of capital.

B.

revenue projections.

C.

required rate of return.

Question 27

An ESG scorecard is best categorized as:

Options:

A.

Purely qualitative analysis

B.

Purely quantitative analysis

C.

A hybrid of qualitative and quantitative analysis

Question 28

Tools that evaluate companies, countries, and bonds based on their exposure or involvement-specific factors, sectors, products, or services are referred to as:

Options:

A.

ESG data.

B.

ESG ratings.

C.

ESG screening.

Question 29

With respect to ESG reporting:

Options:

A.

management has little discretion over ESG disclosures.

B.

larger companies face more resource constraints than smaller companies.

C.

business customers may receive ESG information that is not publicly available to investors.

Question 30

Which of the following challenges do asset managers face in integrating ESG issues?

Options:

A.

Decreasing amount of ESG regulation

B.

A lack of methodologies to integrate ESG considerations for non-corporate issuers

C.

Consultants and advisers base their advice for owners on a narrow interpretation of investment objectives

Question 31

Which of the following is a challenge of integrating ESG analysis into investment processes?

Options:

A.

Cultural challenges and biases within investment management firms

B.

Issuer disclosures are standardized across industries without issuer-specific adjustments

C.

ESG analysis is objective by nature, which makes it challenging to find investment opportunities

Question 32

Will including additional ESG constraints in a portfolio optimization model most likely affect tracking error?

Options:

A.

No

B.

Yes, it will reduce tracking error

C.

Yes, it will increase tracking error

Question 33

Compared to public companies, creating private company scorecards is challenging as:

Options:

A.

less information is available in the public domain

B.

rating agencies are more critical of private companies

C.

management is more unwilling to disclose commercially sensitive information

Question 34

Which of the following parties is most likely to help investors identify the extent and depth to which investment funds integrate ESG?

Options:

A.

Fund labellers

B.

Investment platforms

C.

Investment consultants

Question 35

As a result of an aging population, which of the following sectors is most likely to experience slower growth?

Options:

A.

Healthcare

B.

Consumer goods

C.

Wealth management

Question 36

With respect to the current state of ESG disclosure globally, issuer reporting frameworks for ESG information are:

Options:

A.

mandatory

B.

fragmented

C.

harmonized

Question 37

ESG factors impacting balance sheet strength rather than growth opportunities are most material to:

Options:

A.

Equity investors

B.

Sovereign debt investors

C.

Corporate bond investors

Question 38

To reflect weak governance of a private equity holding, an analyst's model should most likely include a reduction in the holding's:

Options:

A.

Cost of capital

B.

Terminal value

C.

Bankruptcy risk

Question 39

With regards to the climate, financial materiality:

Options:

A.

only considers impacts of a company on the climate

B.

only considers climate-related impacts on a company

C.

considers both impacts of a company on the climate and climate-related impacts on a company

Question 40

When screening individual companies, a practice of avoiding the worst ESG performers best defines:

Options:

A.

positive screening

B.

negative screening

C.

norms-based screening

Question 41

Which of the following statements regarding ESG ratings in the credit area is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Rating providers tend to overcomplicate industry weighting and company alignment

B.

There is a geographical bias towards companies in regions with high reporting standards

C.

Smaller companies may obtain higher ratings because of their willingness to dedicate more resources to non-financial disclosures

Question 42

With regard to screening, exclusions that are not supported by global consensus are best described as:

Options:

A.

universal exclusions

B.

idiosyncratic exclusions

C.

conduct-related exclusions

Question 43

Which of the following best describes a mature ESG regulatory framework? A government putting forward:

Options:

A.

A "comply or explain" ESG regulation

B.

Voluntary ESG corporate disclosures

C.

ESG implementation and reporting guidelines

Question 44

A difficulty of integrating ESG into sovereign debt analysis is most likely the:

Options:

A.

shrinking pool of sovereign investment research available

B.

low correlation among credit ratings compared to ESG ratings

C.

smaller number of issuers compared to corporate debt or equities

Question 45

Commodity price volatility resulting in profits vulnerability for companies is most likely an example of financial risk transmission by:

Options:

A.

micro-channel

B.

macro-channel

C.

company actions

Question 46

A portfolio approach in which bottom-up analysis is complemented with consideration of ESG factors, resulting in a relatively concentrated portfolio, is best described as:

Options:

A.

Systematic

B.

Index-based

C.

Discretionary

Question 47

The Cadbury Committee was created because of perceived problems in:

Options:

A.

Employment rights

B.

Climate change and transition risks

C.

Accounting and corporate governance

Question 48

Globalization has led to a reduction in:

Options:

A.

regulation

B.

market efficiency

C.

social structural inequality

Question 49

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, how many of the nine planetary boundaries have already been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

None

B.

Some

C.

All

Question 50

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, which of the following planetary boundaries have already been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

Climate change only

B.

Loss of biosphere integrity only

C.

Both climate change and loss of biosphere integrity

Question 51

Which of the following best characterizes a climate mitigation strategy rather than a climate adaptation strategy?

Options:

A.

Developing drought-resilient crops

B.

Implementing carbon reduction policies

C.

Planning more efficiently for scarce water resources

Question 52

Material ESG risks that could be managed by a company but which are not yet managed best describe:

Options:

A.

Manageable risks

B.

Unmanageable risks

C.

The management gap

Question 53

In the European Union, publicly listed firms are obliged to change auditors at least every:

Options:

A.

5 years

B.

10 years

C.

20 years

Question 54

With reference to data security and customer privacy issues, a technology company in the research and development stage with no commercially marketed products is most likely to have:

Options:

A.

low risk exposure to this factor in the short run

B.

medium risk exposure to this factor in the short run

C.

high risk exposure to this factor in the short run

Question 55

Under the "shades of green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), a bond that funds transition activities that do not lock in emissions is considered:

Options:

A.

Yellow

B.

Light green

C.

Medium green

Question 56

Which of the following steps in the ESG rating process is most likely the earliest source of the dispersal of opinions between different ESG rating agencies?

Options:

A.

Identification of ESG factors

B.

Determination of weighting and scoring methodologies

C.

Gathering of a set of data points for the identified ESG indicators

Question 57

Best-in-class funds most likely:

Options:

A.

target a higher ESG rating than that of a corresponding index

B.

include only companies that are considered responsible investments

C.

score companies using a common set of ESG criteria and weightings across sectors

Question 58

The first step in the effective design of an investment mandate is determining the:

Options:

A.

client's ESG investment beliefs

B.

impact of ESG factors on risk and return characteristics

C.

fund manager's investment approach to reflect ESG issues

Question 59

Which of the following statements regarding ESG considerations and sovereign debt is most accurate?

Options:

A.

There is little correlation between ESG risk and credit ratings

B.

ESG integration in sovereign debt is at similar levels to listed equities and corporate debt

C.

ESG ratings tend to be structurally lower for emerging countries relative to developed economies

Question 60

All else equal, a higher discount rate applied to a company’s discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis will lead to:

Options:

A.

a lower estimate of intrinsic value

B.

the same estimate of intrinsic value

C.

a higher estimate of intrinsic value

Question 61

According to market reviews conducted by the Global Sustainable Investment Alliance at the start of 2022, which of the following regions has the largest proportion of sustainable investing relative to total managed assets?

Options:

A.

Europe

B.

Canada

C.

United States

Question 62

Which of the following is an example of a climate adaptation measure?

Options:

A.

Investment in wind energy

B.

Increased use of public transport

C.

Use of more drought-resistant crops

Question 63

Third-party assessments that highlight events, behaviors, and practices that may lead to reputational and business risks and opportunities are best classified as:

Options:

A.

advisory services

B.

integrated research

C.

ESG news and controversy alerts

Question 64

Which sector is likely to experience the highest share price increase through reduced carbon emissions?

Options:

A.

Utilities

B.

Industrials

C.

Real estate

Question 65

An investor uses relative screening for 20 sustainable funds. In the sequence of steps outlined by the Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI), which step immediately follows publicizing clear screening criteria?

Options:

A.

Introducing oversight

B.

Reviewing portfolio implications

C.

Adapting the investment process

Question 66

With respect to ESG reporting by investment managers, the 2020 version of the UK Stewardship Code calls for more reporting on the:

Options:

A.

outcomes from ESG activity.

B.

policies and activities of signatories.

C.

assertions of investment managers on ESG themes.

Question 67

According to the "Shades of Green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), which of the following best categorizes a green bond whereaccurate assessment of the contribution of the project or solution to a low-carbon, climate-resilient future is not possible with the information available?

Options:

A.

Yellow.

B.

Light Green.

C.

Medium Green.

Question 68

Which of the following statements regarding the UK Stewardship Code is accurate? The Code:

Options:

A.

Requires signatories to report quarterly on their stewardship activities.

B.

Includes principles for asset owners, asset managers, and service providers.

C.

Allows signatories to fulfill its demands solely by publishing policy statements.

Question 69

If a company does not manage social factors appropriately, an analyst is most likely to:

Options:

A.

Raise the discount rate.

B.

Lower the discount rate.

C.

Apply a specific impact adjustment on existing revenues, costs, and liabilities.

Question 70

According to the Taskforce on Nature-related Financial Disclosures (TNFD), which of the following drivers of nature change can translate into a direct, positive impact on restoration of ecosystem services?

Options:

A.

Pollution

B.

Resource use

C.

Climate change

Question 71

Under which perspective did the Freshfields Report argue that integrating ESG considerations was necessary in all jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Economic

B.

Fiduciary duty

C.

Impact and ethics

Question 72

Growing income inequality most likely leads to:

Options:

A.

Less social mobility.

B.

More educational opportunities.

C.

Higher purchasing power among the middle class.

Question 73

An emissions trading system (ETS) permits a high allocation of free allowances to energy-intensive companies. The most likely objective of this practice is to:

Options:

A.

maintain a low unit price for emissions.

B.

prevent the offshoring of emissions into other jurisdictions.

C.

increase the quantity of emissions allocated to the participants in the ETS.

Question 74

ESG performance attribution:

Options:

A.

Is simple to apply within fixed-income portfolios.

B.

Can be measured using commercially available tools.

C.

Can be decomposed using Brinson and risk factor attribution.

Question 75

Pension fund trustees are most likely to face fiduciary legal risks related to:

Options:

A.

Climate change.

B.

Choice of benchmarks.

C.

A lack of clear signals from fund managers that they are interested in ESG.

Question 76

What did Semite, Bhagwat, and Yankee's 2018 study conclude about board diversity and governance?

Options:

A.

Diverse boards invest less in research and development.

B.

Diversity in the board of directors reduces stock return volatility.

C.

Greater homogeneity among directors leads to higher profitability.

Question 77

The manager of a sovereign fund publishes a list of excluded companies with reasons for the divestments. This is most likely a form of:

Options:

A.

Escalation.

B.

Concert party.

C.

Collective engagement.

Question 78

Exclusion-based screening approaches:

Options:

A.

Expand the investable universe

B.

Are the dominant sustainable investing strategy

C.

Continue to evolve in response to new information

Question 79

As part of executive pay structures, annual key performance indicators are most likely to be a determinant of:

Options:

A.

Bonuses.

B.

Pension benefits.

C.

Share-linked incentives.

Question 80

Leased assets of a company contribute to:

Options:

A.

Scope 1 emissions.

B.

Scope 2 emissions.

C.

Scope 3 emissions.

Question 81

A company's Scope 2 emissions are:

Options:

A.

emissions from purchased energy.

B.

direct emissions from core operations.

C.

emissions produced by suppliers and customers.

Question 82

If an index excludes companies that earn revenues from gambling, the index is most likely using:

Options:

A.

Faith-based exclusions.

B.

Idiosyncratic exclusions.

C.

Conduct-related exclusions.

Question 83

A pension fund concerned about climate change will most likely:

Options:

A.

Accept long-term returns below the benchmark.

B.

Use screens to exclude fossil fuel investments.

C.

Increase investments in sovereign debt of countries where the physical impacts of climate change are likely to be most acute.

Question 84

In contrast to engagement, monitoring is more likely to result in:

Options:

A.

changed company behaviors.

B.

a two-way sharing of perspectives.

C.

efficient capital allocation by investors.

Question 85

Which of the following is most likely an example of quantitative ESG analysis? Analyzing:

Options:

A.

Issuer-reported carbon emissions

B.

Executive compensation policies linked to progress on ESG-related goals

C.

The presence and credibility of investments, policies, and commitments to ESG-related goals

Question 86

A fund focused on avoiding the worst ESG performers relative to industry peers is most likely engaged in:

Options:

A.

Negative screening only

B.

Norms-based screening only

C.

Both negative screening and norms-based screening

Question 87

Which of the following board committees aims to ensure that the board is balanced and effective?

Options:

A.

Audit committee

B.

Compensation committee

C.

Corporate governance committee

Question 88

Advantages of investing in ESG indexes include:

Options:

A.

A standardized methodology for ESG performance.

B.

Identifying firms or countries that prioritize sustainability.

C.

High transparency and disclosure of precise methodologies.

Question 89

Are the following statements relating to investor engagement accurate?

Statement 1: Investors need to frame the engagement topic into a broader discussion around strategy and long-term financial performance with the management team.

Statement 2: Active investment houses are working to ensure that their portfolio managers can deliver stewardship alongside their regular monitoring of investee companies.

Options:

A.

No, only Statement 1 is accurate

B.

No, only Statement 2 is accurate

C.

Yes, both statements are accurate

Question 90

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, which of the following planetary boundaries has been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

Ocean acidification.

B.

Land-system change.

C.

Stratospheric ozone depletion.

Question 91

Which of the following countries has a joint audit requirement that all public interest entities must engage at least two independent accounting firms to perform an annual audit?

Options:

A.

France

B.

Germany

C.

United Kingdom

Question 92

Which of the following are social megatrends?

Options:

A.

Changing demographics and mass migration.

B.

Changes to family structures and mass migration.

C.

Changes to family structures and changing demographics.

Question 93

Which of the following is most likely a success factor characteristic of the engagement approach? Investors pursuing the engagement should have:

Options:

A.

Meaningful assets under management.

B.

A prior relationship with the target company.

C.

An objective that is specific and targeted to enable clarity around delivery.

Question 94

Which of the following best describes a fund manager’s actions regarding specific assets to preserve or enhance their value?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Engagement

C.

Corporate sustainability

Question 95

For a board to be successful, the most important type of diversity relates to:

Options:

A.

Race.

B.

Gender.

C.

Thought.

Question 96

ESG portfolio optimization most likely:

Options:

A.

Applies a fixed decision to specific securities.

B.

Accepts lower active risk when optimizing for multiple factors.

C.

Requires defining an upper and lower bound for a given variable.

Question 97

Working conditions on a tree plantation are most likely an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

social issue

B.

governance issue

C.

environmental issue

Question 98

Which of the following is most likely a secondary source of ESG information?

Options:

A.

Annual reports

B.

ESG rating reports

C.

Corporate sustainability reports

Question 99

The Kyoto Protocol established emissions targets that are:

Options:

A.

binding on all countries.

B.

voluntary for all countries.

C.

binding only on developed countries.

Question 100

A hurdle to adopting ESG investing is most likely a:

Options:

A.

lack of suitable benchmarks.

B.

focus on short-term performance.

C.

lack of options outside of equities.

Question 101

Which of the following encourages institutional investors to work together on human rights and social issues?

Options:

A.

Human Rights 100+

B.

OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises

C.

United Nations Guiding Principles on Business and Human Rights

Question 102

Which of the following statements is least accurate? Compared to social and environmental factors, governance has a:

Options:

A.

greater link to financial performance.

B.

greater consideration in traditional investment analysis.

C.

greater materiality for private companies than for public companies.

Question 103

With respect to exclusion policies, which of the following falls outside of the traditional spectrum of responsible investment?

Options:

A.

Indices

B.

Listed equities

C.

Corporate debt

Question 104

Organizing companies according to their sustainability attributes, such as resource intensity, sustainability risks, and innovation opportunities, best describes the:

Options:

A.

Morningstar sustainability rating.

B.

Sustainable Industry Classification System (SICS).

C.

Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD).

Question 105

ESG screens embedded within portfolio guidelines can be used as:

Options:

A.

a risk management tool only.

B.

a source of investment advantage only.

C.

both a risk management tool and a source of investment advantage.

Question 106

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of a 'just' transition?

Options:

A.

A region transitioning to solar power subsidizes businesses to install solar arrays

B.

A region transitioning to a smaller public sector workforce funds outplacement programs for displaced office workers

C.

A region transitioning away from iron ore mining helps displaced miners to work in the safe decommission of abandoned mines

Question 107

Which of the following is an example of secondary data?

Options:

A.

A news article

B.

A letter to shareholders

C.

A Bloomberg Disclosure score

Question 108

An unfavorable corporate governance assessment would most likely be incorporated in valuation through reduced:

Options:

A.

discount rates.

B.

risk premia in the cost of capital.

C.

levels of confidence in the valuation range.

Question 109

A company’s emission reduction commitments are best evaluated using:

Options:

A.

Scope 3 emissions.

B.

science-based targets.

C.

financial modelling of material environmental factors.

Question 110

Corporate disclosures in line with the recommendations of the Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) are a regulatory requirement for companies in:

Options:

A.

the EU only

B.

the UK only

C.

both the EU and the UK

Question 111

Asset owners can reflect ESG considerations through corporate engagement by:

Options:

A.

discussing ESG issues with an investee company’s board.

B.

working with regulators to design a more stable financial system.

C.

using ESG criteria to identify investment opportunities through a thematic approach.

Question 112

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks and EU Climate Transition Benchmarks both:

Options:

A.

prohibit investments in fossil fuels.

B.

impose green-to-brown ratios to restrict “brown" investments.

C.

use a relative approach by comparing a company’s performance to its sector average.

Question 113

Is the following statement accurate? "Engagement is meant to preserve and enhance long-term value on behalf of the asset owner by focusing on factors such as capital structure and lobbying."

Options:

A.

Yes

B.

No, because engagement does not focus on lobbying

C.

No, because engagement does not focus on capital structure

Question 114

Institutional investors achieve their stewardship and engagement objectives in practice through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Engaging directly with companies only

B.

Utilizing proxy voting advisory firms only

C.

Both engaging directly with companies and utilizing proxy voting advisory firms

Question 115

EU regulators manage the independence of audits for public companies by:

Options:

A.

requiring companies to rotate auditors after a maximum of ten years.

B.

setting a monetary limit on advisory services provided to companies.

C.

preventing audit partners from joining audit and risk committees as non-executive directors.

Question 116

Regrowing previously logged forests is most likely an example of climate:

Options:

A.

resilience.

B.

change mitigation.

C.

change adaptation.

Question 117

An investor requires a social return and will tolerate a sub-market financial return. This best characterizes:

Options:

A.

social investing.

B.

impact investing.

C.

sustainable and responsible investing.

Question 118

Increased investment crowding into more ESG-friendly sectors is most likely to increase:

Options:

A.

valuations.

B.

expected returns.

C.

materiality thresholds.

Question 119

Which of the following initiatives is most closely associated with the increased prevalence of antimicrobial resistance?

Options:

A.

The Bangladesh Accord

B.

Access to Medicine Index

C.

Farm Animal Investment Risk and Return

Question 120

Which of the following best summarizes the studies on carbon risk?

Options:

A.

Companies with lower levels of CO2 emissions are associated with higher returns

B.

Companies with higher levels of CO2 emissions are associated with higher returns

C.

There is no conclusive evidence on the link between a company's level of CO2 emissions and returns

Question 121

Mass migration from developing countries to developed countries are most likely caused by:

Options:

A.

desertification only.

B.

scarcity of fresh water only.

C.

both desertification and scarcity of fresh water.

Question 122

Measuring a portfolio's carbon intensity using the European Union's Sustainable Finance Disclosure Regulation (SFDR) accounts for:

Options:

A.

Scope 1 emissions only.

B.

Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions only.

C.

Scope 1, Scope 2, and Scope 3 emissions.

Question 123

In the investment management industry, triple bottom line accounting theory:

Options:

A.

replaces a broader framework of sustainability.

B.

complements a broader framework of sustainability.

C.

has been replaced by a broader framework of sustainability.

Question 124

Using surface water in a business activity is best characterized as a:

Options:

A.

direct impact on biodiversity

B.

positive indirect impact on biodiversity

C.

negative indirect impact on biodiversity

Question 125

When using a threshold assessment to integrate governance factors into the investment decision-making process, fund managers most likely focus on the:

Options:

A.

cost of capital

B.

quality of management

C.

level of confidence about future earnings

Question 126

Avoiding long-term transition risk can most likely be achieved by:

Options:

A.

investing in companies with stranded assets.

B.

divesting highly carbon-intensive investments in the energy sector.

C.

reducing exposure to companies exposed to extreme weather events.

Question 127

Which of the following UK Stewardship Code principles is not addressed in the European Fund and Asset Management Association (EFAMA) Code? The principle that institutional investors should:

Options:

A.

monitor their investee companies

B.

report periodically on their stewardship and voting activities

C.

have a robust policy on managing conflicts of interest in relation to stewardship

Question 128

Which of the following organizations is not a provider of both ESG-related and non-ESG-related products and services?

Options:

A.

S&P

B.

Factset

C.

RepRisk

Question 129

Which of the following statements about materiality is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Double materiality excludes impacts of a company on ESG factors

B.

Financial materiality is an extension of the accounting concept of double materiality

C.

Dynamic materiality means that investors must constantly review what is financially material for a company

Question 130

Compared to an optimal portfolio that does not have any ESG restrictions a portfolio that optimizes for multiple ESG factors will most likely experience

Options:

A.

lower active risk

B.

higher active risk.

C.

lower tracking error

Question 131

Which of the following statements about corporate governance is most accurate? Companies with a more diverse board of directors are most likely associated with

Options:

A.

lower profitability

B.

lower stock return volatility.

C.

less investment in research and development.

Question 132

In ESG integration, model adjustments are typically performed at the:

Options:

A.

research stage

B.

valuation stage.

C.

portfolio construction stage

Question 133

Integrating the impact of material ESG factors into traditional financial analysis for a company with strong ESG practices most likely.

Options:

A.

leads to a lower estimate of intrinsic value

B.

has no impact on intrinsic value

C.

leads to a higher estimate of intrinsic value

Question 134

Formal corporate governance codes are most likely to

Options:

A.

be found in all major world markets

B.

call for serious consequences for non-comphant organizations.

C.

be interpreted by proxy advisory firms when corporate compliance is assessed

Question 135

Regarding ESG issues, which of the following sets the tone for the investment value chain?

Options:

A.

Asset owners

B.

Asset managers

C.

Investment consultants

Question 136

According to Mercer Consulting, which of the following asset classes has the highest availability of sustainability-themed strategies compared to its asset-class universe?

Options:

A.

Real estate

B.

Private debt

C.

Infrastructure

Question 137

When optimizing a portfolio for ESG factors, as constraint parameters are tightened, the deviation from an optimal portfolio most likely:

Options:

A.

decreases.

B.

is not affected.

C.

increases.

Question 138

The UK’s Green Finance Strategy identifies the policy lever of financing green as

Options:

A.

strengthening the role of the UK financial sector in driving green finance

B.

directing private sector financial flows to economic activities that support an environmentally sustainable and resilient growth.

C.

ensuring that the financial sector systematically considers environmental and climate factors in its lending and investment activities.

Question 139

Under the disclosure guide for public equities published by the Pension and Lifetime Savings Association (PLSA). fund managers are expected to report on:

Options:

A.

ESG integration only.

B.

stewardship activities only.

C.

both ESG integration and stewardship activities

Question 140

Which of the following climate risks are systemic risks to the financial system?

Options:

A.

Policy and legal risks

B.

Technology and stability risks

C.

Physical and transitional risks

Question 141

According to the McKinsey framework which of the following elements of sustainable investing is allocated to the investment dimension of tools and processes?

Options:

A.

Proactive engagement

B.

Review of external managers

C.

Integration with investment teams

Question 142

According to the Capitals Coalition, the stock of renewable and non-renewable natural resources that combine to yield a flow of benefits to people is best described as

Options:

A.

nature

B.

natural capital.

C.

ecosystem assets

Question 143

The Cadbury Commission proposed that:

Options:

A.

transparency around drivers of performance pay should be increased

B.

the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board should be established.

C.

every public company should have an audit committee meeting at least twice a year

Question 144

Which of the following was established by the United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI)?

Options:

A.

Principles for Sustainable Insurance (PSI)

B.

Climate Disclosure Standards Board (CDSB)

C.

Global Sustainable Investment Alliance (GSIA)

Question 145

Which of the following emphasizes that short-term investment performance will be of limited significance in evaluating the manager?

Options:

A.

Brunel Asset Management Accord

B.

International Corporate Governance Network (ICGN) Model Mandate

C.

Principals for Responsible Investment’s (PRI) Practical Guide to ESG Integration for Equity Investing

Question 146

One of the mam principles of stewardship codes calls for institutional investors to:

Options:

A.

regularly monitor investee companies

B.

avoid considering conflicts of interest regarding stewardship matters.

C.

act independently of other investors when escalating stewardship activity

Question 147

In which country is the proposal of shareholder resolutions most common?

Options:

A.

UK

B.

US

C.

Australia

Question 148

Which of the following is a form of individual engagement?

Options:

A.

Generic letter

B.

Soliciting support

C.

Informal discussions

Question 149

A portfolio manager may need to adopt a more appropriate ESG benchmark rather than a broad market benchmark if the degree of exclusions results in:

Options:

A.

low active share and low tracking error

B.

low active share and high tracking error.

C.

high active share and high tracking error.

Question 150

In ESG integration, which of the following best describes a data-mformed analytical opinion designed to support investment decision-making?

Options:

A.

ESG screening

B.

Integrated research

C.

Voting and governance advice

Question 151

Which of the following statements about quantitative ESG analysis is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Quantitative ESG analysis is only based on third-party data

B.

The length of the timeseries for ESG data is shorter than for financial data

C.

Application programming interfaces (APIs) are used to bring structure to the ESG dataset

Question 152

With respect to ESG engagement for a company that is a going concern, the interests of equity investors and debt investors are most likely.

Options:

A.

aligned

B.

opposed.

C.

independent

Question 153

The Sustamalytics database is most likely used for:

Options:

A.

manager ESG assessment

B.

company ESG assessment.

C.

creating an ESG benchmark

Question 154

The triple bottom line accounting theory considers people, profit, and:

Options:

A.

planet

B.

efficiency.

C.

licence to operate

Question 155

When undertaking an ESG assessment of a private equity deal ESG screening and due diligence will most likely take place during:

Options:

A.

exit

B.

ownership

C.

deal sourcing

Question 156

A bond issued to fund projects that provide a clear benefit to the environment best describes a:

Options:

A.

green bond.

B.

transition bond.

C.

sustainability-linked bond.

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Total 522 questions