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BCS CTFL4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 188 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques.

B.

Experience-based test techniques.

C.

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.

White-box test techniques.

Question 2

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Question 3

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

Question 4

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

Question 5

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 6

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

Options:

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

Question 7

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

Question 8

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 9

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Question 10

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 11

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

Question 12

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

Question 13

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Question # 13

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

Question 14

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

Question 15

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Question 16

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

Question 17

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

Question 18

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

Question 19

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

B.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

C.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

D.

It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.

Question 20

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

Question 21

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

Question 22

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 23

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

Question 24

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

Options:

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

Question 25

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

Options:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

Question 26

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Question # 26

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

Question 27

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

Options:

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

Question 28

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

Question 29

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating thecreation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation toolsare specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing toolsas they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage toolsfacilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

Question 30

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question 31

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

Question 32

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

Question 33

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

Question 34

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

Question 35

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

Question # 35

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

Options:

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

Question 36

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

TopicDescription

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

Question 37

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

Question 38

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

Question 39

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5 passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct current password, but enters an invalid password

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

Options:

A.

The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

B.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail confirming that the password has been successfully changed

C.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally views the dedicated error

D.

The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful

Question 40

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

Question 41

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

Question 42

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using theBoundary Value Analysis (BVA)technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Question 43

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 44

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

Question 45

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

Question 46

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

Question 47

Consider the followinguser storyand itsacceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the"Agnotoly"association, I want to be able topay the association’s dues through an automatic payment methodso that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register theircell phone number.

    The member must register thecredit cardin the payment system.

    The member must select apayment method (monthly or annual).

    The member mustaccept the terms and conditionsfor the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends anOTP(one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method isregistered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processedmonthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Question 48

Which ONE of the following options is aPRODUCT riskand NOT aPROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

Question 49

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

Question 50

From a testing perspective, configuration management

Options:

A.

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

Question 51

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Question # 51

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Question 52

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

Question 53

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

Question 54

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

Question 55

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

Question 56

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

Question # 56

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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