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BCS CISMP-V9 BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 Exam Practice Test
BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 Questions and Answers
Ensuring the correctness of data inputted to a system is an example of which facet of information security?
Options:
Confidentiality.
Integrity.
Availability.
Authenticity.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Ensuring the correctness of data inputted to a system is a fundamental aspect of data integrity within information security. Integrity refers to the trustworthiness and accuracy of data throughout its lifecycle. This means that the data has not been altered in an unauthorized manner and remains consistent, accurate, and trustworthy. It is crucial for the proper functioning of any system that relies on data to make decisions or perform operations. Measures to ensure data integrity include input validation, error checking, and data verification processes that prevent incorrect data entry, unauthorized data alteration, and ensure that the data reflects its intended state.
References: This concept is covered under the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which outlines integrity as one of the key facets of information security, ensuring that data remains authentic and unaltered from its original state123.
When establishing objectives for physical security environments, which of the following functional controls SHOULD occur first?
Options:
Delay.
Drop.
Deter.
Deny.
Answer:
CExplanation:
When establishing objectives for physical security environments, the primary goal is to prevent unauthorized access or damage to physical assets. The functional control that should occur first is ‘Deter’. Deterrence is about discouraging potential intruders from attempting to breach the physical security perimeter or engage in unauthorized activities. It is achieved through visible security measures such as signage, barriers, lighting, and the presence of security personnel. These measures are designed to make potential intruders aware of the risks and consequences of their actions, thereby reducing the likelihood of an attempt.
‘Delay’, ‘Drop’, and ‘Deny’ are subsequent controls that come into play if deterrence fails. ‘Delay’ involves slowing down the intruder, ‘Drop’ could mean removing the intruder’s access or privileges, and ‘Deny’ involves outright prevention of access. However, without initial deterrence, the effectiveness of these subsequent controls may be compromised.
References: This explanation utilizes the knowledge of Information Security Management Principles as outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which includes the categorization, operation, and effectiveness of different types of controls12.
What advantage does the delivery of online security training material have over the distribution of printed media?
Options:
Updating online material requires a single edit. Printed material needs to be distributed physically.
Online training material is intrinsically more accurate than printed material.
Printed material is a 'discoverable record' and could expose the organisation to litigation in the event of an incident.
Online material is protected by international digital copyright legislation across most territories.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The delivery of online security training material offers several advantages over printed media. One of the key benefits is the ease of updating content. When updates are required, online materials can be edited quickly and efficiently, with changes being immediately available to all users. This contrasts with printed materials, which would require a new physical version to be produced and distributed, a process that is both time-consuming and resource-intensive1.
Furthermore, online training materials can be accessed from anywhere at any time, providing flexibility and convenience for learners. They also allow for interactive elements, such as quizzes and simulations, which can enhance the learning experience1. Additionally, online materials can be tracked for usage and completion, enabling organizations to monitor compliance with training requirements2.
While option C mentions a ‘discoverable record,’ this refers to the legal concept that materials may be used as evidence in litigation. However, this is not an advantage of online over printed media, as both can be discoverable. Option B’s claim that online materials are intrinsically more accurate is not necessarily true, as accuracy depends on the content’s quality, not the delivery method. Option D is incorrect because while online materials are protected by copyright laws, this is not an exclusive benefit over printed materials, which are also protected.
References: The explanation is based on the general principles of Information Security Management, particularly focusing on the efficiency and flexibility of online training delivery as opposed to traditional printed methods. The references are derived from the search results provided by the web search tool, which align with the known benefits of online cybersecurity training and the drawbacks of printed media12.
When undertaking disaster recovery planning, which of the following would NEVER be considered a "natural" disaster?
Options:
Arson.
Electromagnetic pulse
Tsunami.
Lightning Strike
Answer:
AExplanation:
Arson is an act of intentionally setting fire to property for malicious reasons. It is a criminal act and is not classified as a natural disaster. Natural disasters are events that occur due to natural processes of the Earth, such as tsunamis, lightning strikes, and other weather-related events. An electromagnetic pulse can be a natural event if it is caused by solar flares or a man-made event if it is the result of a nuclear explosion. However, arson is always the result of human activity and is not caused by natural processes1.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a clear understanding of IS management issues, including risk management, security standards, legislation, and business continuity, which are relevant to identifying and classifying the nature of disasters in the context of disaster recovery planning1.
Which term is used to describe the set of processes that analyses code to ensure defined coding practices are being followed?
Options:
Quality Assurance and Control
Dynamic verification.
Static verification.
Source code analysis.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Static verification refers to the set of processes that analyze code without executing it to ensure that defined coding practices are being followed. This method involves reviewing the code to detect errors, enforce coding standards, and identify security vulnerabilities. It is a crucial part of the software development lifecycle and helps maintain code quality and reliability. Static verification can be performed manually through code reviews or automatically using static analysis tools.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles includes the understanding of technical security controls, which encompasses static verification as a means to ensure the integrity and security of software code1.
Which of the following is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management?
Options:
TOGAF
SABSA
PCI DSS.
OWASP.
Answer:
BExplanation:
SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology specifically designed for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management. It provides a layered approach to security architecture, ensuring that security is aligned with business goals and is driven by risk management principles. SABSA’s methodology integrates with business and IT management processes, focusing on the design, delivery, and support of security services within the enterprise environment1.
TOGAF (The Open Group Architecture Framework) is also used in the context of enterprise architecture but is not solely focused on security. It provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture2.
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment2.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is an online community that produces freely-available articles, methodologies, documentation, tools, and technologies in the field of web application security2.
References: The information provided here is based on the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles and the knowledge of current frameworks and methodologies relevant to enterprise security architecture and service management34.
Which of the following statements relating to digital signatures is TRUE?
Options:
Digital signatures are rarely legally enforceable even if the signers know they are signing a legal document.
Digital signatures are valid and enforceable in law in most countries in the world.
Digital signatures are legal unless there is a statutory requirement that predates the digital age.
A digital signature that uses a signer’s private key is illegal.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Digital signatures are a form of electronic signature that uses cryptographic techniques to provide secure and verifiable means of signing electronic documents. They are widely recognized and accepted as legally binding in many jurisdictions around the world. The enforceability of digital signatures is backed by various laws and regulations that recognize electronic signatures as equivalent to handwritten signatures, provided they meet certain criteria for authenticity and integrity. For instance, in the United States, the ESIGN Act establishes the legal validity of electronic signatures, including digital signatures1. Similarly, the eIDAS regulation in the European Union provides a legal framework for electronic signatures and trust services, including digital signatures2.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles addresses the legal aspects of information security, including the enforceability of digital signatures. It aligns with international standards and practices that affirm the legal validity of digital signatures, as reflected in documents such as the ESIGN Act and the eIDAS regulation34.
Which of the following uses are NOT usual ways that attackers have of leveraging botnets?
Options:
Generating and distributing spam messages.
Conducting DDOS attacks.
Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities.
Undertaking vishing attacks
Answer:
DExplanation:
Botnets are typically used by attackers for a variety of malicious activities, most commonly for:
- Generating and distributing spam messages: Botnets can send out large volumes of spam emails to promote products or services, or to distribute malware.
- Conducting DDoS attacks: Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks are often carried out using botnets to overwhelm a target’s servers with traffic.
- Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities: Botnets can be used to scan a large number of systems for vulnerabilities that can be exploited in further attacks.
However, vishing attacks, which involve voice phishing through phone calls, are not commonly associated with the use of botnets. Vishing typically involves direct voice communication to trick individuals into divulging sensitive information and does not leverage the distributed computing power of botnets, which is central to their usual applications such as spam distribution, DDoS attacks, and vulnerability scanning123.
References: The answer is informed by the common uses of botnets as outlined in various cybersecurity resources, including the BCS Information Security Management Principles, which emphasize the importance of understanding botnet capabilities in the context of information security management12
In business continuity, what is a battle box?
Options:
A portable container that holds Items and information useful in the event of an organisational disaster.
An armoured box that holds all an organisation's backup databases.
A collection of tools and protective equipment to be used in the event of civil disturbance.
A list of names and addresses of staff to be utilised should industrial action prevent access to a building.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A battle box, in the context of business continuity, is a portable container that holds items and information essential for an organization to continue critical operations during and after a disaster. This may include contact lists, key documents, backup media, and other resources necessary for decision-making and recovery efforts. The concept of a battle box aligns with the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Management domain of Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of preparedness and the ability to respond effectively to incidents that disrupt business operations.
References: The definition and purpose of a battle box can be found within the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which provides a clear understanding of IS management issues, including business continuity and the importance of having such mechanisms in place1.
http://www.battlebox.biz/why.asp
What term refers to the shared set of values within an organisation that determine how people are expected to behave in regard to information security?
Options:
Code of Ethics.
Security Culture.
System Operating Procedures.
Security Policy Framework.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The term that refers to the shared set of values within an organization that determines how people are expected to behave in regard to information security is known as Security Culture. This encompasses the attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors of individuals within the organization towards the protection of data and information assets. A strong security culture is vital for the effective implementation of security policies and controls, as it influences how employees interact with the organization’s information systems and handle sensitive information. It’s the collective mindset that prioritizes security as a fundamental aspect of all business operations and decisions1.
A Code of Ethics typically outlines the principles and moral values that guide the behavior of individuals within an organization but does not specifically address information security behaviors.
System Operating Procedures are detailed written instructions to achieve uniformity of the performance of a specific function, which is more about the operational aspect rather than the underlying values or behaviors.
A Security Policy Framework provides a structured set of policies that dictate the security measures and controls that are to be applied across the organization. While it sets the formal requirements for security, it does not inherently define the cultural aspect of how individuals within the organization value and engage with these requirements1.
References: The answer is derived from the knowledge of Information Security Management Principles as outlined by the BCS Foundation Certificate in InformationSecurity Management Principles and supported by additional resources on organizational security culture23.
When considering outsourcing the processing of data, which two legal "duty of care" considerations SHOULD the original data owner make?
1 Third party is competent to process the data securely.
2. Observes the same high standards as data owner.
3. Processes the data wherever the data can be transferred.
4. Archive the data for long term third party's own usage.
Options:
2 and 3.
3 and 4.
1 and 4.
1 and 2.
Answer:
DExplanation:
When outsourcing data processing, the original data owner has a legal duty of care to ensure that the third party is competent to process the data securely (1) and observes the same high standards as the data owner (2). This means that the third party must have the necessary skills, knowledge, and security measures in place to protect the data,and they must adhere to the same level of data protection and privacy standards as the original owner. Processing the data wherever it can be transferred (3) and archiving the data for the third party’s own long-term usage (4) are not primary legal considerations and may, in fact, contravene data protection laws if done without proper safeguards and compliance with regulations.
References: The duty of care in the context of data protection is a critical aspect of GDPR and other privacy regulations, which emphasize the responsibility of data controllers to ensure that any third-party processors they use comply with the same data protection standards1. Additionally, the principles of due care and due diligence in cybersecurity highlight the importance of selecting competent third-party service providers and ensuring they maintain high standards of data protection2.
You are undertaking a qualitative risk assessment of a likely security threat to an information system.
What is the MAIN issue with this type of risk assessment?
Options:
These risk assessments are largely subjective and require agreement on rankings beforehand.
Dealing with statistical and other numeric data can often be hard to interpret.
There needs to be a large amount of previous data to "train" a qualitative risk methodology.
It requires the use of complex software tools to undertake this risk assessment.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The main issue with qualitative risk assessments is their inherent subjectivity. Unlike quantitative assessments that use numerical data, qualitative assessments rely on the judgment and experience of the assessors to estimate risks. This can lead to inconsistencies if the criteria for ranking and categorizing risks are not clearly defined and agreed upon by all stakeholders involved in the assessment process. The subjective nature of this method can also influence the prioritization of risks, potentially affecting the decision-making process regarding which security controls to implement.
References: This explanation is consistent with the principles of Information Security Management, which highlight the importance of objectivity and clear criteria in risk assessments to ensure effective risk management. The ISACA Journal also discusses the subjective nature of qualitative risk assessments and the need for agreement on rankings1. Additionally, the qualitative versus quantitative dilemma in information security risk assessment is well-documented in academic literature2.
What type of attack attempts to exploit the trust relationship between a user client based browser and server based websites forcing the submission of an authenticated request to a third party site?
Options:
XSS.
Parameter Tampering
SQL Injection.
CSRF.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is an attack that exploits the trust relationship between a user’s browser and a server-based website. In a CSRF attack, the attacker tricks the authenticated user’s browser into sending a request to a third-party site, which the browser is already authenticated with, without the user’s knowledge or consent. This can lead to unauthorized actions being performed on the user’s behalf, such as changing user settings, posting content, or even initiating financial transactions. The attack leverages the fact that the browser automatically includes credentials like cookies, session tokens, or other authentication information with each request to a site123.
References :=
- Reflectoring’s "Complete Guide to CSRF/XSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery)"1.
- OWASP Foundation’s “Anti CSRF Tokens ASP.NET” article2.
- Threat Intelligence’s blog on "Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) - What Is It, How to Prevent It"3.
What Is the PRIMARY difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?
Options:
Within DevSecOps security is introduced at the end of development immediately prior to deployment.
DevSecOps focuses solely on iterative development cycles.
DevSecOps includes security on the same level as continuous integration and delivery.
DevOps mandates that security is integrated at the beginning of the development lifecycle.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary difference between DevOps and DevSecOps lies in the integration of security practices. DevOps is a methodology that emphasizes collaboration between development and operations teams to automate the software development process, including continuous integration (CI) and continuous delivery (CD). However, DevOps does not inherently prioritize security as part of the development process.
DevSecOps, on the other hand, extends the DevOps principles by integrating security into every aspect of the software development lifecycle. This approach is often summarized by the term “shift-left,” which means incorporating security from the beginning and throughout the development process, rather than treating it as an afterthought or a final step before deployment. In DevSecOps, security is considered a shared responsibility among all team members, and it is addressed through continuous security processes that are as integral as CI/CD in the DevOps culture.
References: The distinction between DevOps and DevSecOps is well-documented in various sources that discuss their methodologies and the importance of integrating security into the development lifecycle12345.
When handling and investigating digital evidence to be used in a criminal cybercrime investigation, which of the following principles is considered BEST practice?
Options:
Digital evidence must not be altered unless absolutely necessary.
Acquiring digital evidence cart only be carried on digital devices which have been turned off.
Digital evidence can only be handled by a member of law enforcement.
Digital devices must be forensically "clean" before investigation.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best practice when handling and investigating digital evidence for use in a criminal cybercrime investigation is to ensure that digital devices are forensically “clean” before any investigation takes place. This means that the devices should be free from any potential contamination that could compromise the integrity of the evidence. It’s crucial to maintain the original state of digital evidence as much as possible to ensure its admissibility in court. Altering digital evidence should be avoided unless it’s absolutely necessary for the investigation, and even then, it should be done following strict protocols to document the changes made. While law enforcement often handles digital evidence, the principle of maintaining a forensically clean state applies universally to ensure the evidence remains untainted and reliable.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of maintaining the integrity and reliability of digital evidence. It outlines the procedures and controls that should be in place when dealing with digital evidence, which includes ensuring devices are forensically clean before investigation1.
For which security-related reason SHOULD staff monitoring critical CCTV systems be rotated regularly during each work session?
Options:
To reduce the chance of collusion between security staff and those being monitored.
To give experience to monitoring staff across a range of activities for training purposes.
Health and Safety regulations demand that staff are rotated to prevent posture and vision related harm.
The human attention span during intense monitoring sessions is about 20 minutes.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Regular rotation of staff monitoring critical CCTV systems is recommended primarily to address the limitations of the human attention span. Research suggests that the average human attention span during intense monitoring tasks is approximately 20 minutes. After this period, vigilance and alertness can significantly decrease, leading to a potential lapse in monitoring effectiveness. Rotating staff helps to ensure that individuals are always at their most attentive when observing the CCTV feeds, which is crucial for maintaining security and safety standards. This practice also helps to mitigate risks associated with fatigue and the potential for missing critical events or details.
References: = The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of procedural/people security controls, which includes the management of human factors in security monitoring. The principles suggest that understanding human behavior and limitations is key to designing effective security systems and protocols12.
By what means SHOULD a cloud service provider prevent one client accessing data belonging to another in a shared server environment?
Options:
By ensuring appropriate data isolation and logical storage segregation.
By using a hypervisor in all shared severs.
By increasing deterrent controls through warning messages.
By employing intrusion detection systems in a VMs.
Answer:
AExplanation:
In a shared server environment, such as cloud services, it’s crucial to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of client data. The most effective way to prevent one client from accessing another’s data is through data isolation and logical storage segregation. This approach aligns with the Information Security Management Principles, specifically under the domain of Technical Security Controls. Data isolation ensures that each client’s data is processed and stored separately, while logical storage segregation uses software controls to keep data separate even when stored on the same physical server. This method is part of a broader set of security controls that include encryption, access controls, and regular audits to ensure compliance with security policies.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of understanding security controls and their operation within the technical environment1. The recommended reading list and syllabus for the certification provide further details on these principles2.
In order to maintain the currency of risk countermeasures, how often SHOULD an organisation review these risks?
Options:
Once defined, they do not need reviewing.
A maximum of once every other month.
When the next risk audit is due.
Risks remain under constant review.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Maintaining the currency of risk countermeasures is a continuous process due to the ever-changing nature of risks. Organizations should regularly review and update their risk assessments and countermeasures to ensure they are effective against current threats. This is because new vulnerabilities can emerge, and threat actors can develop new techniques, making previously effective countermeasures obsolete. Therefore, risks should remain under constant review to adapt to the dynamic security landscape, ensuring that the organization’s security posture is resilient and responsive to new information or changes in the environment.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of ongoing risk management and the need for regular reviews of security controls and countermeasures1. It aligns with best practices in information security management, which advocate for a proactive and adaptive approach to risk management1.
Once data has been created In a standard information lifecycle, what step TYPICALLY happens next?
Options:
Data Deletion.
Data Archiving.
Data Storage.
Data Publication
Answer:
CExplanation:
After data creation, the typical next step in the standard information lifecycle is data storage. This phase involves securing the data in a storage solution where it can be accessed, managed, and protected effectively. Proper data storage ensures that data remains intact and available for future processing and analysis. It is a critical step before data can be used for any operational or analytical purposes, and precedes other stages such as archiving or deletion, which occur later in the lifecycle123.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles includes the understanding of the information lifecycle as part of its syllabus, emphasizing the importance of each stage, including data storage4. This is supported by industry practices and standards that outline the data lifecycle stages, as found in resources like the Harvard Business School Online’s insights on the data lifecycle1, and other data management guides23.
Which of the following describes a qualitative risk assessment approach?
Options:
A subjective assessment of risk occurrence likelihood against the potential impact that determines the overall severity of a risk.
The use of verifiable data to predict the risk occurrence likelihood and the potential impact so as to determine the overall severity of a risk.
The use of Monte-Carlo Analysis and Layers of Protection Analysis (LOPA) to determine the overall severity of a risk.
The use of Risk Tolerance and Risk Appetite values to determine the overall severity of a risk
Answer:
AExplanation:
A qualitative risk assessment approach is characterized by the subjective analysis of the likelihood of a risk occurring and its potential impact. This method relies on the judgment and experience of the assessor to estimate the severity of a risk. It does not use numerical data or statistical methods, which are typical of quantitative assessments. Instead, it may use descriptors like ‘low’, ‘medium’, or ‘high’ to rate both the likelihoodof occurrence and the potential impact. This approach is useful when precise data is unavailable or when assessing complex, multifaceted risks where human insight is valuable.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of understanding the different approaches to risk assessment, including qualitative methods. It emphasizes the need for subjective analysis in certain scenarios and the role of experienced judgment in evaluating risks1.
How does network visualisation assist in managing information security?
Options:
Visualisation can communicate large amounts of data in a manner that is a relatively simple way for people to analyse and interpret.
Visualisation provides structured tables and lists that can be analysed using common tools such as MS Excel.
Visualisation offers unstructured data that records the entirety of the data in a flat, filterable ftle format.
Visualisation software operates in a way that is rarely and thereby it is less prone to malware infection.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Network visualization is a powerful tool in managing information security as it can transform complex data sets into visual formats that are easier to understand and analyze. This is particularly useful in cybersecurity, where large volumes of data need to be monitored for potential security threats. Effective data visualization can provide meaningful insights into network security data, helping analysts to quickly identify patterns, anomalies, and trends that may indicate security incidents12.
While options B and C are methods of data analysis, they do not leverage the unique capabilities of visualization for rapid interpretation of security data. Option D is incorrect because the operation of visualization software does not inherently reduce malware infection risks; it’s the insights gained from visualization that can assist in proactive threat detection and management12.
References :=
- Effective Data Visualization in Cybersecurity, IEEE Conference1.
- A Survey of Visualization Systems for Network Security, IEEE Transactions2.
What Is the root cause as to why SMS messages are open to attackers and abuse?
Options:
The store and forward nature of SMS means it is considered a 'fire and forget service'.
SMS technology was never intended to be used to transmit high risk content such as One-time payment codes.
The vast majority of mobile phones globally support the SMS protocol inexpensively.
There are only two mobile phone platforms - Android and iOS - reducing the number of target environments.
Answer:
BExplanation:
SMS technology was originally designed for casual, low-security communication. It lacks the robust security features required for transmitting sensitive information, such as one-time payment codes. The protocol does not encrypt messages, leaving them vulnerable to interception during transmission. Furthermore, the widespread adoption of SMS for various services has made it an attractive target for attackers, leading to exploitation through methods like SIM swapping, phishing, and other forms of abuse12.
References: The explanation is based on the general knowledge of SMS technology’s limitations and security vulnerabilities, as well as information from sources discussing SMS attacks and mitigation strategies12.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be described as a consequential loss?
Options:
Reputation damage.
Monetary theft.
Service disruption.
Processing errors.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Consequential loss in the context of information security refers to secondary or indirect damage that occurs as a result of a primary event or incident. It is not the immediate direct loss, such as theft of money or service disruption, but rather the subsequent impact that may not be immediately apparent. Reputation damage is a prime example of consequential loss because it is a secondary effect that can occur after a security breach or incident. The loss of trust by customers, partners, and stakeholders can have long-term negative effects on a business’s financial health and market position. This type of loss is often more significant and lasting than the immediate direct costs associated with an incident.
References: The understanding of consequential loss aligns with the principles outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of considering both direct and indirect impacts of security incidents12.
A security analyst has been asked to provide a triple A service (AAA) for both wireless and remote access network services in an organization and must avoid using proprietary solutions.
What technology SHOULD they adapt?
Options:
TACACS+
RADIUS.
Oauth.
MS Access Database.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The AAA service, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, is essential for managing user access to network resources. When it comes to providing AAA services for both wireless and remote access network services in a non-proprietarymanner, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is the most suitable technology.
RADIUS is an open standard protocol widely used for network access authentication and accounting. It is supported by a variety of network vendors and devices, making it a non-proprietary solution that can be easily integrated into different network environments. RADIUS provides a centralized way to authenticate users, authorize their access levels, and keep track of their activity on the network1.
- TACACS+ is a Cisco proprietary protocol and therefore does not meet the requirement of avoiding proprietary solutions.
- OAuth is a framework for authorization and is not typically used for network access control in the same way that RADIUS is.
- MS Access Database is not a network authentication protocol and would not provide the necessary AAA services for network security.
References: The information provided here is based on the principles of AAA services as outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles and supported by industry-standard practices for non-proprietary network security solutions.
When preserving a crime scene for digital evidence, what actions SHOULD a first responder initially make?
Options:
Remove power from all digital devices at the scene to stop the data changing.
Photograph all evidence and triage to determine whether live data capture is necessary.
Remove all digital evidence from the scene to prevent unintentional damage.
Don't touch any evidence until a senior digital investigator arrives.
Answer:
BExplanation:
When preserving a crime scene for digital evidence, it is crucial to maintain the integrity of the evidence while also ensuring that volatile data is not lost. The initial actions should include photographing all evidence, which helps document the scene and the location of digital devices. This is important for later analysis and may be required for legal proceedings. Triage is the process of determining the importance of digital evidence and whether live data capture is necessary. Live data capture can be essential because some data can be lost if a device is powered down, such as encryption keys or active network connections1.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a framework for understanding information security management, including the importance of preserving digital evidence. It emphasizes the need for proper documentation, handling, and analysis of digital evidence to support the principles of information security management2. Additionally, guidelines from authoritative sources like the Electronic Crime Scene Investigation Guide by the National Institute of Justice provide detailed steps for handling digital evidence, which supports the answer provided1.
What are the different methods that can be used as access controls?
1. Detective.
2. Physical.
3. Reactive.
4. Virtual.
5. Preventive.
Options:
1, 2 and 4.
1, 2 and 3.
1, 2 and 5.
3, 4 and 5.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Access controls are essential in information security for ensuring that resources are available to authorized users and protected from unauthorized access. The methods of access control can be categorized as follows:
- Detective: These controls are designed to identify and record unauthorized access attempts. They do not prevent access but are useful for auditing and monitoring purposes.
- Physical: Physical controls are tangible measures taken to protect assets, such as locks, fences, and security guards.
- Preventive: Preventive controls are designed to stop unauthorized access before it happens. This includes mechanisms like passwords, biometric scans, and encryption.
The combination of detective, physical, and preventive controls provides a robust framework for managing access to sensitive information and systems. Reactive controls are not typically classified as access controls since they deal with responding to incidents after they occur, and virtual controls are not a recognized category in this context.
References: The answer is based on the principles outlined in the BCS Information Security Management Principles, which include various access control methods to protect information integrity, confidentiality, and availability123.
Which membership based organisation produces international standards, which cover good practice for information assurance?
Options:
BSI.
IETF.
OWASP.
ISF.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The British Standards Institution (BSI) is known for producing standards that cover good practices in various domains, including information assurance. BSI is the UK’s national standards body and a founding member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). It contributes to the development of international standards through ISO, which provides frameworks and best practices for information security management systems (ISMS), such as the ISO/IEC 27000 series. These standards are designed to help organizations manage the security of assets such as financial information, intellectual property, employee details, and information entrusted by third parties.
References: The BSI’s role in developing international standards for information assurance is supported by its status as the UK’s national standards body and its contributions to ISO, which can be verified through ISO’s official website and related documentation12.
What term is used to describe the testing of a continuity plan through a written scenario being used as the basis for discussion and simul-ation?
Options:
End-to-end testing.
Non-dynamic modeling
Desk-top exercise.
Fault stressing
Answer:
CExplanation:
A desk-top exercise is a form of testing for a continuity plan that involves a structured discussion around a written scenario. This scenario is used as the basis for simulation, without the activation of actual resources. It typically involves key personnel discussing the steps they would take in response to a particular set of circumstances, as outlined in the scenario. This type of exercise is designed to validate the theoretical aspects of a plan and ensure that those involved understand their roles and responsibilities. It can also highlight any gaps or issues within the plan that need to be addressed.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a framework for understanding the various aspects of information security management, including business continuity management and the different types of testing and exercises that can be used to ensure plans are effective and up-to-date1.
Which algorithm is a current specification for the encryption of electronic data established by NIST?
Options:
RSA.
AES.
DES.
PGP.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the current specification for the encryption of electronic data established by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). AES is a symmetric block cipher that can encrypt (encipher) and decrypt (decipher) information, converting data to an unintelligible form called ciphertext and back to its original form, plaintext. The AES algorithm is capable of using cryptographic keys of 128, 192, and 256 bits to encrypt and decrypt data in blocks of 128 bits. It was selected by NIST as a Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) to protect electronic data and is widely recognized and used for secure data encryption1.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of understanding various encryption algorithms, including AES, for protecting electronic data. The NIST publication on AES provides detailed information about the standard and its application1.
Which of the following statutory requirements are likely to be of relevance to all organisations no matter which sector nor geographical location they operate in?
Options:
Sarbanes-Oxley.
GDPR.
HIPAA.
FSA.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation that applies to all organizations operating within the EU and also to organizations outside of the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. It is designed to harmonize data privacy laws across Europe and to protect and empower all EU citizens’ data privacy. The GDPR’s relevance extends beyond geographical and sector-specific boundaries because it applies to any organization that processes the personal data of individuals within the EU, making it a global standard for data protection.
While other options like Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) have significant impacts on specific sectors or regions, GDPR’s broad scope makes it relevant to a wide range of organizations worldwide. It sets a precedent for data protection laws globally, influencing other regulations and becoming a de facto standard for many companies, even in countries without similar laws.
References := This explanation is based on the principles of Information Security Management, particularly in the domain of legal and regulatory compliance, as outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles. The GDPR’s wide-reaching impact is also supported by various legal analyses and discussions in the field of international data protection123.
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