New Year Special Limited Time Flat 70% Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70spcl

AHIMA CDIP Certified Documentation Integrity Practitioner Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 14
Total 140 questions

Certified Documentation Integrity Practitioner Questions and Answers

Question 1

AHIMA suggests which of the following for an organization to consider as physician response rate and agreement rate?

Options:

A.

80%/40%

B.

80%/80%

C.

75%/75%

D.

70%/50%

Question 2

When there are comparative contrasting diagnoses supported by clinical criteria, the correct action is to

Options:

A.

code the first condition listed

B.

query for clarification

C.

not code either diagnosis

D.

code both diagnoses

Question 3

An organization dealing with staffing shortages has adopted a policy requiring clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) to stop reviewing any record after a major complication or co-morbidity is found. What is the unintended consequence of

this?

Options:

A.

Increase in case mix index

B.

Reduced risk of clinical denials

C.

Increased number of records reviewed by each CDIP

D.

Decrease in severity of illness and risk of mortality

Question 4

A 94-year-old female patient is admitted with altered mental status and inability to move the left side of her body. She is diagnosed with a cerebral vascular accident with left sided weakness. The patient is ambidextrous, but the physician does not specify the

predominance of the affected side. The default code is

Options:

A.

ambidextrous

B.

non-dominant

C.

preferred

D.

dominant

Question 5

The best approach in resolving unanswered queries is to

Options:

A.

notify the physician advisor/champion that the physician has not responded to the query

B.

review the facility's query policies and procedures

C.

contact the physician repeatedly until he/she responds to the query

D.

notify the coding team of the physician's unanswered query

Question 6

A patient is admitted for pneumonia with a WBC of 20,000, respiratory rate 20, heart rate 85, and oral temperature 99.0°. On day 2, sputum cultures reveal positive

results for pseudomonas bacteria. The most appropriate action is to

Options:

A.

code pneumonia, unspecified

B.

query the provider to see if pseudomonas sepsis is supported by the health record

C.

query the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia

D.

code pseudomonas pneumonia

Question 7

When queries are part of the health record, which of the following physician privilege could be suspended if the provider receives too many deficiencies due to

incomplete records for failure to respond to queries?

Options:

A.

Admitting

B.

Consulting

C.

Surgical

D.

Credentialing

Question 8

A 56-year-old male patient complains of feeling fatigued, has nausea & vomiting, swelling in both legs. Patient has history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage III,

coronary artery disease (CAD) & hypertension (HTN). He is on Lisinopril. Vital signs: BP 160/80, P 84, R 20, T 100.OF. Labs: WBC 11.5 with 76% segs, GFR 45. CXR

showed slight left lower lobe haziness. Patient was admitted for acute kidney injury (AKI) with acute tubular necrosis (ATN). He was scheduled for hemodialysis the

next day. Two days after admission patient started coughing, fever of 101.8F, CXR showed left lower lobe infiltrate, possible pneumonia. Attending physician

documented that patient has pneumonia and ordered Rocephin IV. How should the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) interact with the physician to

clarify whether or not the pneumonia is a hospital-acquired condition (HAC)?

Options:

A.

Dr. Adair, in your clinical opinion, do you think that the patient's acute kidney injury with ATN exacerbated the patient's pneumonia?

B.

No need to query the physician because even if the pneumonia is considered a HAC and cannot be used as an MCC, ATN is also an MCC.

C.

No need to interact with the physician because it is obvious the pneumonia developed after admission, therefore, not present on admission.

D.

Dr. Adair, please indicate if the patient's pneumonia was present on admission (POA) based on the initial chest x-ray?

Question 9

Whether or not queries should be kept as a permanent part of the medical record is decided by

Options:

A.

physician preference

B.

state law

C.

federal law

D.

organizational policy

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of a hospital-acquired condition when not present on admission?

Options:

A.

Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy

B.

Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization

C.

Pressure ulcer stage II

D.

Pressure ulcer stage III

Question 11

Collaboration between the physician advisor/champion and the clinical documentation integrity practitioners (CDIPs) would likely include

Options:

A.

performing data analysis

B.

developing query forms

C.

educating physicians

D.

querying physicians

Question 12

Which of the following demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patient treated in the hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's

clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?

Options:

A.

Hospital acquired conditions

B.

Program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report

C.

Present on admission indicators

D.

Adjusted case mix index

Question 13

A patient is admitted for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. The patient is on 3L of home oxygen and is treated during admission with 3L of

oxygen. The most appropriate action is to

Options:

A.

query the provider to see if acute on chronic respiratory failure is supported by the health record

B.

query the provider to see if chronic respiratory failure is supported by the health record

C.

code the diagnoses of COPD exacerbation and chronic respiratory failure

D.

query the provider to see if respiratory insufficiency is supported by the health record

Question 14

Which of the following clinical documentation integrity (CDI) dashboard metrics is frequently used to help evaluate the credibility of CDI practitioner queries and the

success of the CDI program?

Options:

A.

CDI agreement rate

B.

CDI query rate

C.

Provider response rate

D.

Provider agreement rate

Question 15

When writing a compliant query, best practice is to

Options:

A.

direct the physician to a specific diagnosis

B.

include all relevant clinical indicators

C.

use the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present

D.

use a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis

Question 16

A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) has been successful in getting physicians to respond to queries. However, when the CDIP poses a query to a specific doctor, there is no response at all. The CDIP has tried face-to-face conversations,

calling, emails, texts, but still gets no response. What is the next step the CDIP should take?

Options:

A.

Elevate the issue to the physician advisor/champion after the CDI supervisor has reviewed the case and deemed the query appropriate

B.

Report the doctor to the Vice President of Medical Affairs so the doctor understands the importance of clinical documentation

C.

Hold a meeting with the CDI director and the doctor to find out why the doctor is not responding to the queries

D.

Warn the other CDIPs that the doctor is a non-responder and to forego querying

Question 17

The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager is meeting with a steering committee to discuss the adoption of a new CDI program. The plan is to use case mix index (CMI) as a metric of CDI performance. How will this metric be measured?

Options:

A.

Over time with a focus on high relative weight (RW) procedures that impact these procedures on overall CMI

B.

Over time with a focus on particular documentation improvement areas in addition to the overall CMI

C.

Month-to-month and focus on patient volumes to determine the raise the overall CMI

D.

Month-to-month to show CMI variability as a barometer of a specific month

Question 18

In order to best demonstrate the impact of clinical documentation on severity of illness and risk of mortality, which of the following examples is the most effective for

physicians in a hospital?

Options:

A.

The latest Medicare Provider and Analysis Review data

B.

Emphasize the Medicare requirements for documentation

C.

Examples from the hospital's actual cases

D.

Explanations on how severity of illness and risk of mortality impact reimbursement

Question 19

A patient presents to the emergency room with complaint of cough with thick yellow/greenish sputum, and generalized pain. Admitting vital signs are noted below and

sputum culture performed. The patient is admitted with septicemia due to pneumonia and has received 2L of normal saline and piperacillin/ tazobactam. After all results

were reviewed, on day 2, the hospitalist continued to document septicemia due to pneumonia.

White blood count BC 18,000

Temperature 101.5

Heart rate 110

Respiratory rate 24

Blood pressure 95/67

Sputum culture (+) klebsiella pneumoniae

Which diagnosis implies that a query was sent and answered?

Options:

A.

Sepsis with respiratory failure due to pneumonia

B.

Sepsis with pneumonia due to klebsiella pneumoniae

C.

Septicemia due to klebsiella pneumoniae

D.

Severe sepsis with pneumonia due to klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 20

A 75-year-old, diabetic patient with a history of osteoporosis, being treated with Fosamax, who sustained a femur fracture after falling down three stairs. The provider's documentation indicates to admit the patient for a traumatic femur fracture and an

orthopedics consult is pending. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) decides to query for a possible link between osteoporosis and the femur fracture. Which of the following is the most compliant query based on the most recent

AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief?

Options:

A.

Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. In your medical opinion, is this fracture consistent with an osteoporotic pathological fracture?

B.

Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Please clarify the cause of the femur fracture in your next note and/or the discharge summary.

C.

Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Could diabetes be a contributing factor in the femur fracture?

D.

Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Please document "femur fracture due to osteoporosis" in your next progress note to demonstrate a link between the two diagnoses.

Question 21

When benchmarking with outside organizations, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine if the organization is benchmarking with which

of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

Hospital within its region

B.

Hospitals that are its peers

C.

Hospital within its county

D.

Hospital within its state

Question 22

An 80-year-old male is admitted as an inpatient to the ICU with shortness of breath, productive yellow sputum, and a temperature of 101.2. CXR reveals bilateral pleural effusion and LLL pneumonia. Labs reveal a BUN of 42 and a creatinine level of 1.500.

The patient is given Zithromax 500 mg. IV, NS IV, and Lasix 40 mg tabs 2x/day. The attending physician documents bilateral pleural effusion, LLL pneumonia, and kidney failure. Two days later, the renal consult documents AKI with acute tubular necrosis

(ATN). The correct principal and secondary diagnoses are

Options:

A.

PDx: AKI with ATN

SDx: LLL pneumonia, bilateral pleural effusion

B.

PDx: LLL pneumonia

SDx: Bilateral pleural effusion, kidney failure

C.

PDx: LLL pneumonia

SDx: AKI with ATN, bilateral pleural effusion

D.

PDx: Bilateral pleural effusion

SDx: LLL pneumonia, kidney failure

Question 23

A patient was admitted for high fever and pain in umbilical region. During the second day of the hospital stay, the patient stood up to use the restroom and fell on the floor, resulting in a broken chin bone. A physician noted the fall on the second day in

progress note. Which further clarification should be done regarding present on admission (POA) indicator of fall?

Options:

A.

No query is needed

B.

Query physician for POA

C.

Bring this case up in weekly Health Information Management meetings for further action

D.

Take the case to physician advisor/champion to discuss further action

Question 24

Which of the following organizations should a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) monitor?

Options:

A.

Office of Inspector General (OIG), Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC), Recovery Auditors (RAs)

B.

Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report (PEPPER), Recovery Auditors (RAs), Center for Improvement in Healthcare (CIHQ)

C.

Recovery Auditors (RAs), Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report (PEPPER), Office of Inspector General (OIG)

D.

Center for Improvement in Healthcare (CIHQ), Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC), Recovery Auditors (RAs)

Question 25

A patient presents to the emergency room with acute shortness of breath. The patient has a history of lung cancer that has been treated previously with radiation and

chemotherapy. The patient is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. A chest x-ray is remarkable for a pleural effusion. A thoracentesis is performed, and the

cytology results show malignant cells. Diagnoses on discharge: Acute respiratory failure due to recurrence of small cell carcinoma and malignant pleural effusion. Which

coding reference takes precedence for assigning the ICD-10-CM/PCS codes?

Options:

A.

Conventions and instructions of the classification for ICD-10-CM/PCS

B.

AMA CPT Assistant

C.

AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS

D.

ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

Question 26

Given the following ICD-10-CM Alphabetical Index entry:

Ectopic (pregnancy) 008.9

What is the meaning of the parenthesis?

Options:

A.

Exclusion notes

B.

Non-essential modifiers

C.

Essential modifiers

D.

Inclusion notes

Question 27

Combination codes are used to classify two diagnoses, a diagnosis with a manifestation, or a diagnosis

Options:

A.

that is an integral part of a disease process

B.

with an associated complication

C.

with an associated procedure

D.

with a sequelae or late effect

Question 28

Tracking denials within the clinical documentation integrity program is important to

Options:

A.

determine coding inaccuracies and educate as necessary

B.

file a timely appeal if the medical center disagrees with the RAC findings

C.

identify documentation improvement opportunities and educate as necessary

D.

confirm reimbursement was appropriate

Question 29

The facility has received a clinical validation denial for sepsis. The denial states sepsis is not a clinically valid diagnosis because it does not meet Sepsis-3 criteria. The facility has a policy stating it uses Sepsis-2 criteria. What is the BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Remove sepsis from all claims where the diagnosis is not supported by sepsis 3 criteria.

B.

Appeal the denial because all payors must use the hospital's sepsis criteria when reviewing their claims.

C.

Query physicians when Sepsis-3 criteria is not met so they can provide additional documentation to support the diagnosis.

D.

Have the contracting department work with payors to obtain agreement on how sepsis will be clinically validated.

Question 30

A 100-year-old female presents to the emergency department with altered mental state and a 3-day history of productive cough, shortness of breath, and fever after a witnessed aspiration 3 days ago. The patient lives in custodial care at a nearby skilled

nursing facility. Patient was treated with Augmentin at the facility without improvement. Exam is notable for Tc 38.9, blood pressure 142/78, respiratory rate 28, pulse 91. There is accessory muscle use with breathing. Patient is moaning and disoriented but

otherwise the neurologic exam is nonfocal.

Labs notable for sodium 126, creatinine 0.5. white blood count 17.5, hemoglobin 13, platelet 200. venous blood gas 7.44/32/45/-3

Chest x-ray shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates and dense right lower lobe consolidation.

Patient is placed on bilevel positive airway pressure and given vancomycin, pip/tazo, levofloxacin.

Discharge Diagnosis: health care associated pneumonia (HCAP), respiratory distress, altered mental status, low sodium

Which list of diagnoses require a post-discharge query that will result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness and risk of mortality?

Options:

A.

Sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, hyponatremia, pneumonia

B.

Coma, stroke, HCAP, hypernatremia

C.

Aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia, septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure

D.

Severe sepsis, hypernatremia, delirium, pneumonia

Question 31

A hospital administrator has hired a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) firm to improve its revenue objectives. The physicians object to this action. How should the firm collaborate with physicians to overcome their objections?

Options:

A.

Create a vision statement that outlines the project objectives

B.

Communicate the benefits of the CDI firm about the project

C.

Hire a consultant to communicate the benefits to the physicians

D.

Identify an influential physician advisor/champion to promote support

Question 32

What type of query may NOT be used in circumstances where only clinical indicators of a condition are present, and the condition/diagnosis has not been documented in

the health record?

Options:

A.

Multiple-choice

B.

Open-ended

C.

Verbal

D.

Yes/No

Question 33

A patient presented with shortness of breath, elevated B-type natriuretic peptide, and lower extremity edema to the emergency room. During the hospitalization, a cardiac

echocardiogram was performed and revealed an ejection fraction of 55% with diastolic dysfunction. The patient's history includes hypertension (HTN), chronic kidney

disease (CKD) (baseline glomerular filtration rate 40) and congestive heart failure (CHF). The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) has queried the

physician to further clarify the patient's diagnosis. Which response provides the highest level of specificity?

Options:

A.

Acute on chronic diastolic CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3

B.

Acute on chronic systolic CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3

C.

Acute diastolic CHF with HTN and CKD 3

D.

Acute CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3

Question 34

A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) hired by an internal medicine clinic is creating policies governing written queries. What is an AHIMA best practice for these policies?

Options:

A.

Queries are limited to non-leading questions

B.

Non-responses to written queries are grounds for discipline

C.

Primary care physicians must answer written queries

D.

Queries for illegible chart notes are unnecessary

Question 35

Which of the following falls under the False Claims Act?

Options:

A.

Missing charges

B.

Unbundling services

C.

Missing modifiers

D.

Missing diagnosis codes

Question 36

A patient's progress note states "The patient has chronic systolic heart failure". After reviewing clinical indicators suggestive of an exacerbation of systolic heart failure,

the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) queries the physician to clarify the current acuity of the diagnosis. Which subsequent documentation in the

health record suggests the provider did not understand the query?

Options:

A.

The patient has chronic systolic heart failure.

B.

The patient has acute on chronic systolic heart failure.

C.

The patient did have an exacerbation of heart failure.

D.

The patient has decompensated systolic heart failure.

Question 37

Creating policies and procedures for the query process will help eliminate

Options:

A.

confusion

B.

risk

C.

indecision

D.

duplication

Question 38

An increase in claim denials has prompted a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager to engage the CDI physician advisor/champion in an effort to avoid future denials. How does this strategy impact the goal?

Options:

A.

The CDI manager will exclusively provide education.

B.

Physicians will learn documentation integrity practices from peers.

C.

Physicians can manage the documentation integrity process.

D.

Clinicians will not require documentation integrity education.

Question 39

A 27-year-old male patient presents to the emergency room with crampy, right lower quadrant abdominal pain, a low-grade fever (101° Fahrenheit) and vomiting. The

patient also has a history of type I diabetes mellitus. A complete blood count reveals mild leukocytosis (13,000/microliter). Abdominal ultrasound is ordered, and the

patient is admitted for laparoscopic surgery. The patient is given an injection of neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin, in order to normalize the blood sugar level prior to

surgery. Upon discharge, the attending physician documents "right lower quadrant abdominal pain due to possible acute appendicitis or probable Meckel diverticulitis".

What is the proper sequencing of the principal and secondary diagnoses?

Options:

A.

Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, acute appendicitis, Meckel diverticulitis, fever, vomiting, leukocytosis

B.

Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, leukocytosis

C.

Acute appendicitis, Meckel diverticulitis, type I diabetes mellitus

D.

Acute appendicitis, right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes mellitus

Question 40

Which factors are important to include when refocusing the primary vision of a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?

Options:

A.

Reporting and the use of technology

B.

Value and mission statements

C.

Benchmarks and case mix index

D.

Diagnostic related groups and revenue cycle

Question 41

Which of the following should be shared to ensure a clear sense of what clinical documentation integrity (CDI) is and the CDI practitioner's role within the organization?

Options:

A.

Productivity standards

B.

Review schedule

C.

Milestones

D.

Mission

Question 42

A 90-year-old female patient was admitted to emergency room c/o nausea and vomiting x2 days. Vital signs: BP 130/72, P 86, R 22, T 99.8F, O2 sat 94% on room air. Patient has a history of cerebral vascular accident (CVA) and difficulty swallowing. CXR

revealed right lower lobe infiltrate. Labs: WBC 12.0 with 71% segs. Physician documents patient with a history of CVA and difficulty swallowing. CXR revealed right lower lobe infiltrate, diagnosis: pneumonia. Aspiration precautions and IV Clindamycin

ordered. Patient was discharged 3 days later with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Clarification is needed to determine which of the following is clinically indicated.

Options:

A.

Simple pneumonia

B.

Aspiration pneumonia

C.

Pneumonia, a sequela of CVA

D.

Complex pneumonia

Page: 1 / 14
Total 140 questions